Author Archives: PAUL KING

Principles Of Flight

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1. Q90 Through which factor listed below does the load factor increase during cruise flight?

A) Lower air density

B) An upward gust

C) A forward centre of gravity

D) Higher aeroplane weight

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2. Q101 What is meant by “ground effect”?

A) Decrease of lift and increase of induced drag close to the ground

B) Decrease of lift and decrease of induced drag close to the ground

C) Increase of lift and decrease of induced drag close to the ground

D) Increase of lift and increase of induced drag close to the ground

3 / 20

3. Q58 A take-off with flaps in take-off position causes…

A) an increased acceleration.

B) a decrease in drag.

C) an increased rate of climb.

D) a shortening of the take-off run.

4 / 20

4. Q9 All aerodynamic forces can be considered to act on a single point. This point is called…

A) lift point.

B) transition point.

C) center of gravity.

D) center of pressure.

5 / 20

5. Q72 The critical angle of attack…

A) increases with a front centre of gravity.

B) decreases with a rear centre of gravity.

C) is changed by different aircraft weights.

D) is not changed by different aircraft weights.

6 / 20

6. Q94 During a descent at idle power with constant speed, the propeller lever is moved backwards. How do the propeller pitch and sink rate change?

A) Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is increased

B) Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is decreased

C) Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is increased

D) Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is decreased

7 / 20

7. Q7 Bernoulli’s equation for frictionless, incompressible gases states that…

A) dynamic pressure = total pressure + static pressure.

B) static pressure = total pressure + dynamic pressure.

C) total pressure = dynamic pressure – static pressure.

D) total pressure = dynamic pressure + static pressure.

8 / 20

8. Q24 Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack increases?

A) The stagnation point moves down

B) The center of pressure moves down

C) The stagnation point moves up

D) The center of pressure moves up

9 / 20

9. Q31 The drag coefficient…

A) is proportional to the lift coefficient.

B) cannot be lower than a non-negative, minimal value.

C) may range from zero to an infinite positive value.

D) increases with increasing airspeed.

10 / 20

10. Q4 What effects typically result from propeller icing?

A) Reduced power output, decreasing RPM.

B) Increased power output, increasing RPM.

C) Reduced power output, increasing RPM.

D) Increased power output, decreasing RPM.

11 / 20

11. Q51 In motorplanes the stall warning is usually activated by a change of…

A) the transition point.

B) the center of gravity.

C) the center of pressure.

D) the stagnation point.

12 / 20

12. Q62 What types of boundary layers can be found on an aerofoil?

A) Laminar boundary layer along the complete upper surface with non-separated airflow

B) Turbulent boundary layer along the complete upper surface with separated airflow

C) Laminar layer at the leading wing areas, turbulent boundary layer at the trailing areas

D) Turbulent layer at the leading wing areas, laminar boundary layer at the trailing areas

13 / 20

13. Q70 Rotation around the vertical axis is called…

A) pitching.

B) slipping.

C) yawing.

D) rolling.

14 / 20

14. Q10 The center of pressure is the theoretical point of origin of…

A) all aerodynamic forces of the profile.

B) gravity forces of the profile.

C) gravity and aerodynamic forces.

D) only the resulting total drag.

15 / 20

15. Q80 What is the advantage of differential aileron movement?

A) The drag of the downwards deflected aileron is lowered and the adverse yaw is smaller

B) The ratio of the drag coefficient to lift coefficient is increased

C) The adverse yaw is higher

D) The total lift remains constant during aileron deflection

16 / 20

16. Q68 Stability around which axis is mainly influenced by the center of gravity’s longitudinal position?

A) Lateral axis

B) Vertical axis

C) Gravity axis

D) Longitudinal axis

17 / 20

17. Q54 When extending the flaps for landing at constant angle of attack, in which way does the lift coefficient change far before reaching the maximum lift coefficient?

A) It remains constant

B) It decreases

C) It increases

D) It is not possible to define

18 / 20

18. Q97 The bank in a two-minute turn (rate one turn) depends on the…

A) wind.

B) load factor.

C) weight.

D) TAS.

19 / 20

19. Q3 Flying with speeds higher than the never-exceed-speed (vNE) may result in…

A) flutter and mechanically damaging the wings.

B) too high total pressure resulting in an unusable airspeed indicator.

C) reduced drag with increased control forces.

D) an increased lift-to-drag ratio and a better glide angle.

20 / 20

20. Q8 If surrounded by airflow (v>0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces…

A) lift without drag.

B) constant drag at any speed.

C) drag.

D) drag and lift.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

General

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General

1 / 20

1. Q94 What values are usually marked with a red line on instrument displays?

A) Recommended areas

B) Operational limits

C) Operational areas

D) Caution areas

2 / 20

2. Q63 Piston engines of helicopters have…

A) one magneto ignition system.

B) two independent ignition systems.

C) two coupled ignition systems.

D) one electrical ignition system.

3 / 20

3. Q28 What happens to a helicopter during cruise when the stick is moved forward without other corrections?

A) The speed increases and the sink rate decreases

B) The speed decreases and the sink rate increases

C) The speed decreases and the sink rate decreases

D) The speed increases and the sink rate increases

4 / 20

4. Q46 What devices can be affected by a failure of the electrical system in a helicopter?

A) Radio equipment, navigation equipment and gyros

B) Radio equipment, navigation equipment and magnetic compass

C) Fuel quantity indication, radio equipment and altimeter

D) Airspeed indicator, altimeter and artificial horizon

5 / 20

5. Q93 Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator?

A) Total air pressure is measured by the static ports and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator

B) Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum.

C) Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator

D) Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure.

6 / 20

6. Q37 What has to be considered during refueling?

A) Check the fuel content of the tank with a torch and remove fire protection

B) Apply ground wires, turn on the main switch and magneto ignition

C) No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables

D) Refuel through a soaked rag and keep a fire extinguisher available

7 / 20

7. Q119 When is it necessary to adjust the pressure in the reference scale of an alitimeter?

A) Every day before the first flight

B) Once a month before flight operation

C) After maintance has been finished

D) Before every flight and during cross country flights

8 / 20

8. Q109 A gyro which is rotating in space responds to forces being applied to it by an evasive movement…

A) in a northern direction.

9 / 20

9. Q56 What is the major task of a carburettor?

A) To pump fuel from the tanks into the cylinder

B) To produce an ignitable air/fuel mixture

C) To provide additional fuel to cool the engine

D) To control the aircraft’s speed through the throttle valve

10 / 20

10. Q25 How are the flight controls on a small single-engine piston aircraft normally controlled and actuated?

A) Hydraulically through hydraulic pumps and actuators

B) Power-assisted through hydraulic pumps or electric motors

C) Manually through rods and control cables

D) Electrically through fly-by-wire

11 / 20

11. Q41 What is the unit for voltage?

A) Watt

B) Ampere

C) Ohm

D) Volt

12 / 20

12. Q52 Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?

A) It is mixed with the fuel

B) At the lowest position

C) It floats on the fuel

D) Near the cap of the tank

13 / 20

13. Q60 Cylinder head temperature indication relates to…

A) all Cylinders.

B) the average of all cylinders.

C) the critical cylinder.

D) a random cylinder.

14 / 20

14. Q123 The term “inclination” is defined as…

A) angle between earth’s magnetic field lines and horizontal plane.

B) angle between airplane’s longitudinal axis and true north.

C) deviation induced by electrical fields.

D) angle between magnetic and true north.

15 / 20

15. Q6 Which tail assembly is shown in the attachment? See figure (AGK-003)Siehe Anlage 2

A) Cruciform tail

B) V-tail

C) Fuselage-mounted tail

D) T-tail

16 / 20

16. Q19 How is the nose or tail wheel usually controlled on small aircraft and motor gliders?

A) By the steering wheel

B) By the pedals

C) By the control column

D) By weight movement

17 / 20

17. Q124 What does the slip indicator show?

A) Airplane’s bank

B) Rate of turn

C) Vertical to horizon

D) Apparent vertical

18 / 20

18. Q68 With increasing altitude and unchanged mixture setting, the air/fuel mixture…

A) becomes more lean.

B) stays constant.

C) becomes liquid.

D) becomes richer.

19 / 20

19. Q32 The trim wheel or lever in the cockpit is moved aft by the pilot. What effect does this action have on the trim tab and on the elevator?

A) The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves down

B) The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves down

C) The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves up

D) The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up

20 / 20

20. Q100 Which of the mentioned cockpit instruments is connected to the pitot tube?

A) Direct-reading compass

B) Vertical speed indicator

C) Altimeter

D) Airspeed indicator

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Navigation

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Navigation

1 / 20

1. Q136 What is meant by the term “terrestrial navigation”?

A) Orientation by ground features during visual flight

B) Orientation by instrument readings during visual flight

C) Orientation by ground celestial object during visual flight

D) Orientation by GPS during visual flight

2 / 20

2. Q117 When transmitter and receiver are moving away from each other…

A) the perceived frequency increases.

B) the perceived frequency decreases.

C) the perceived frequency equals the transmitted frequency.

D) the frequency varies, but the wavelength remains constant.

3 / 20

3. Q121 Where is the aircraft located in relation to the VOR? See annex (NAV-022)Siehe Anlage 7

A) Northwest

B) Northeast

C) Southwest

D) Southeast

4 / 20

4. Q107 Which equipment is needed on board of an aircraft to receive signals from a non directional beacon (NDB)?

A) Automatic direction finder (ADF)

B) Secondary surveillance radar (SSR)

C) Course deviation indicator (CDI)

D) Horizontal situation indicator (HSI)

5 / 20

5. Q114 Fading in LF/MF frequency range occurs mainly…

A) in the daytime.

B) in the late afternoon.

C) during the night.

D) at midday.

6 / 20

6. Q127 Using primary ground radar, the direction of the aeroplane in relation to the antenna is determined by…

A) the frequency shift of the received pulse.

B) the pulse pair interval.

C) the orientation of the antenna.

D) time measurement.

7 / 20

7. Q46 Which lines have to be used by the pilot to determine the aircraft’s position?

A) Magnetic bearings (QDR)

B) Magnetic headings (MH)

C) True bearings (QTE)

D) Relative bearings (RB)

8 / 20

8. Q91 Which equipment is needed on board of an aircraft to use a VHF direction finder (VDF)?

A) At least two VHF aerials

B) A VHF radio

C) A VDF receiver

D) A relative bearing indicator (RBI)

9 / 20

9. Q4 Which statement about a rhumb line is correct?

A) The shortest track between two points along the Earth’s surface follows a rhumb line.

B) The center of a complete cycle of a rhumb line is always the Earth’s center.

C) A rhumb line cuts each meridian at the same angle.

10 / 20

10. Q123 The range of a VOR is affected by…

A) multipath propagation of the ground wave.

B) reflected sky waves.

C) transmitter and receiver altitude.

D) daylight interference.

11 / 20

11. Q18 With Central European Summer Time (CEST) given as UTC+2, what UTC time corresponds to 1600 CEST?

A) 1400 UTC.

B) 1600 UTC.

C) 1500 UTC.

D) 1700 UTC.

12 / 20

12. Q87 Radio waves within the LF and MF range (e.g. NDB) travel as…

A) sky wave and as ground / surface wave.

B) sky wave.

C) space wave (quasi-optical).

D) ground / surface wave.

13 / 20

13. Q86 The approximate propagation speed of electromagnetic waves is…

A) 300000 km/s.

B) 300000 NM/s.

C) 300000 m/s.

D) 300000 ft/s.

14 / 20

14. Q32 Where does the inclination reach its lowest value?

A) At the geographic equator

B) At the magnetic poles

C) At the magnetic equator

D) At the geographic poles

15 / 20

15. Q133 Which altitude is transmitted by the transponder in mode C?

A) Radio altitude

B) Pressure altitude

C) QFE altitude

D) QNH altitude

16 / 20

16. Q131 The transponder code in case of hi-jacking is…

A) 7000

B) 7500

C) 7600

D) 7700

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17. Q22 The term ‘civil twilight’ is defined as…

A) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is 6 degrees or less below the true horizon.

B) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is 12 degrees or less below the true horizon.

C) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is 6 degrees or less below the apparent horizon.

D) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is 12 degrees or less below the apparent horizon.

18 / 20

18. Q130 What is the difference between primary and secondary radar?

A) The pulses of a primary radar are variably pulse-modulated, the pulses of a secondary radar are statically amplitude-modulated

B) The primary radar is displayed on a computer screen, the secondary radar on a radar strip

C) The pulses of a primary radar are variably amplitude-modulated, the pulses of a secondary radar are statically pulse-modulated

D) The pulses of a primary radar are reflected by the aircraft’s surface, the pulses of a secondary radar system are answered by a transponder

19 / 20

19. Q25 The angle between the true course and the true heading is called…

A) deviation.

B) variation.

C) WCA.

D) inclination.

20 / 20

20. Q90 A VHF direction finder (VDF) can determine…

A) true courses.

B) approach speeds.

C) magnetic bearings.

D) slant ranges.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Planning

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Planning

1 / 20

1. Q83 The EOBT (estimated off-block time) is specified in the ATS flight plan as…

A) Local Mean Time (LMT).

B) Central European Time (CET).

C) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).

D) Standard Time (ST).

2 / 20

2. Q73 The term “maximum elevation figure” (MEF) is defined as…

A) the highest elevation within an area covering 1 degree of latitude and 1 degree of longitude plus a safety margin, rounded to the next lower 100 ft.

B) the highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude.

C) the highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude plus a safety margin, rounded to the next higher 100 ft.

D) the highest elevation within an area covering 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude plus a safety margin of 1000 ft (305 m), rounded to the next higher 100 ft.

3 / 20

3. Q44 The term “steady flight” is defined as…

A) climb or descent with a constant climb or descent rate in calm weather conditions.

B) unaccelerated flight. The four forces thrust, drag, lift, and weight are in equilibrium.

C) flight with a steady power setting without changing course.

D) flight in smooth air without turbulence and a perfectly trimmed aircraft.

4 / 20

4. Q15 The term “center of gravity” is defined as…

A) the heaviest point on an aeroplane.

B) another designation for the neutral point.

C) the point at which the total mass of the aeroplane is considered to act.

D) half the distance between the neutral point and the datum line.

5 / 20

5. Q100 (For this question, please use annex PFP-062) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a civil airport (not international airport) with paved runway? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 23

A) B

B) A

C) C

D) D

6 / 20

6. Q48 The beginning of the green arc (2) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008)Siehe Anlage 8

A) VS1: Stall speed with flaps up

B) VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations

C) VS0: Stall speed in landing configuration

D) VFE: Maximum flap extended speed

7 / 20

7. Q38 How does wind affect the take-off performance?

A) Tailwind aids the aircraft in overcoming the initial drag at the commencement of the take-off roll. The take-off distance will decrease

B) Tailwind reduces the relative wind on the airfoil. The take-off distance will increase

C) Headwind causes an increased airflow around the wing. The take-off distance will increase

D) Headwind imposes an increased drag on the aircraft. The take-off distance will increase

8 / 20

8. Q12 Baggage and cargo must be properly stowed and fastened, otherwise a shift of the cargo may cause…

A) structural damage, angle of attack stability, velocity stability.

B) continuous attitudes which can be corrected by the pilot using the flight controls.

C) calculable instability if the C.G. is shifting by less than 10 %.

D) uncontrollable attitudes, structural damage, risk of injuries.

9 / 20

9. Q8 The basic empty mass of an aircraft includes…

A) the total mass of an aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation including the required fuel and crew, but excluding traffic load.

B) the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation including crew, navigation instruments and engine cowling.

C) the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding unusable fuel and traffic load. The mass includes items such as crew and crew baggage.

D) the mass of the aeroplane plus standard items such as unusable fuel and other unusable liquids, lubricating oil in engine and auxiliary units, fire extinguishers, pyrotechnics, emergency oxygen equipment, supplementary electronic equipment.

10 / 20

10. Q20 The term “balance arm” in the context of a mass and balance calculation defines the…

A) distance from the datum to the center of gravity of a mass.

B) distance of a mass from the center of gravity.

C) point through which the force of gravity is said to act on a mass.

D) point on the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all masses are referenced.

11 / 20

11. Q99 (For this question, please use annex PFP-061) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 22

A) D

B) B

C) A

D) C

12 / 20

12. Q88 In comparison to the true airspeed in still air conditions, the TAS in a strong tailwind will be…

A) slightly higher for maximum endurance.

B) significantly lower for maximum endurance.

C) the same for maximum range.

D) slightly lower for maximum range.

13 / 20

13. Q19 The term “moment” with regard to a mass and balance calculation is referred to as…

A) product of a mass and a balance arm.

B) quotient of a mass and a balance arm.

C) sum of a mass and a balance arm.

D) difference of a mass and a balance arm.

14 / 20

14. Q45 The speed Vy is defined as…

A) best rate of climb.

B) best angle of climb.

C) best distance of climb.

D) best speed of climb.

15 / 20

15. Q79 How much taxi fuel must be consumed before take-off to reduce the aircraft mass to the maximum take-off mass? Maximum ramp mass (MRM): 1150 kg Actual ramp mass: 1148 kg Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 1145 kg

A) 4 L

B) 5 L

C) 3 L

D) 2 L

16 / 20

16. Q54 A pilot wants to take off on runway 36, the reported wind is 240 degrees, 12 knots. What is the value of the wind components acting on the aircraft on take-off and landing?

A) Crosswind from the right 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.

B) Crosswind from the left 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.

C) Crosswind from the left 6 kt. Tailwind 10.4 kt.

D) Crosswind from the right 6 kt. Headwind 10.4 kt.

17 / 20

17. Q16 The center of gravity (CG) defines…

A) the distance from the datum to the position of a mass.

B) the point on the longitudinal axis or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all masses are referenced.

C) the product of mass and balance arm.

D) the point through which the force of gravity is said to act on a mass.

18 / 20

18. Q49 The end of the green arc (4) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008)Siehe Anlage 8

A) VS1: Stall speed with flaps up

B) VNE: Never-exceed speed

C) VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations

D) VFE: Maximum flap extended speed

19 / 20

19. Q14 The total weight of an aeroplane is acting vertically through the…

A) neutral point.

B) center of pressure.

C) stagnation point.

D) center of gravity.

20 / 20

20. Q31 The position of the center of gravity (including fuel) equals… See figure(PFP-053e)Siehe Anlage 2

A) 37.3 cm.

B) 0.403 m.

C) 0.401 m.

D) 37.1 cm.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Human

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Human

1 / 20

1. Q2 During a flight with a flight plan submitted, landing is conducted at an airfield other than the destination stated in the filed flight plan. Who has to be contacted by the pilot immediately?

A) The flight manager on duty.

B) The police department.

C) Local office for aereal supervision.

D) Aeronatical Information Service (AIS).

2 / 20

2. Q1 A flight plan has been files for a flight departing at an uncontrolled aerodrome. When has the actual take-off time been transmitted to ATC?

A) At deviation from expected off-block time by more than 15 min.

B) When landing is assured.

C) Upon request from ATC.

D) Immediately after take-off.

3 / 20

3. Q9 Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by…

A) fuel or hydraulic fluids.

B) Pitot icing.

C) cracks in the heat exchanger.

D) generator failure.

4 / 20

4. Q39 Which answer states a risk factor for diabetes?

A) Alcohol consumption

B) Overweight

C) Sleep deficiency

D) Smoking

5 / 20

5. Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress?

Attention
Concentration
Responsiveness
Memory (1,00 P.)

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 1

C) 2, 4

D) 1, 2, 3

6 / 20

6. Q11 Which of the following symptoms may indicate hypoxia?

A) Blue discolouration of lips and fingernails

B) Blue marks all over the body

C) Joint pain in knees and feet

D) Muscle cramps in the upper body area

7 / 20

7. Q56 At which point in the diagram will a pilot find himself to be overstrained? See figure (HPL-002) P = Perfromance A = Arousal / StressSiehe Anlage 1

A) Point D

B) Point C

C) Point A

D) Point B

8 / 20

8. Q58 Which answer is correct concerning stress?

A) Stress can occur if there seems to be no solution for a given problem

B) Stress and its different symptoms are irrelevant for flight safety

C) Training and experience have no influence on the occurence of stress

D) Everybody reacts to stress in the same manner

9 / 20

9. Q31 An acceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of…

A) a bank.

B) a climb.

C) a descent.

D) an inverted flight.

10 / 20

10. Q37 Visual illusions are mostly caused by…

A) binocular vision.

B) misinterpretation of the brain.

C) colour blindness.

D) rapid eye movements.

11 / 20

11. Q13 From which altitude on does the body usually react to the decreasing atmospheric pressure?

A) 10000 feet

B) 12000 feet

C) 2000 feet

D) 7000 feet

12 / 20

12. Q36 A Grey-out is the result of…

A) hypoxia.

B) tiredness.

C) positive g-forces.

D) hyperventilation.

13 / 20

13. Q10 Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton?

A) Spasm

B) Cyanose

C) Tingling

D) Disturbance of consciousness

14 / 20

14. Q48 Under which circumstances is it more likely to accept higher risks?

A) During check flights due to a high level of nervousness

B) During flight planning when excellent weather is forecast

C) If there is not enough information available

D) Due to group-dynamic effects

15 / 20

15. Q4 The center of gravity has to be located…

A) behind the rear C.G. limit.

B) between the front and the rear C.G. limit.

C) right of the lateral C. G. limit.

D) in front of the front C.G. limit.

16 / 20

16. Q45 The ongoing process to monitor the current flight situation is called…

A) anticipatory check procedure.

B) constant flight check.

C) situational awareness.

D) situational thinking.

17 / 20

17. Q46 Regarding the communication model, how can the use of the same code during radio communication be ensured?

A) By the use of radio phraseology

B) By the use of proper headsets

C) By using radios certified for aviation use only

D) By a particular frequency allocation

18 / 20

18. Q6 Air consists of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases. What is the approximate percentage of other gases?

A) 0.01

B) 0.21

C) 0.78

D) 0.001

19 / 20

19. Q8 What does the term “Red-out” mean?

A) Falsified colour perception during sunrise and sunset

B) Rash during decompression sickness

C) Anaemia caused by an injury

D) "Red vision" during negative g-loads

20 / 20

20. Q40 A risk factor for decompression sickness is…

A) sports.

B) smoking.

C) 100 % oxygen after decompression.

D) scuba diving prior to flight.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Procedures

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Procedures

1 / 20

1. Q53 What are the effects of wet grass on the take-off and landing distance?

A) Decrease of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance

B) Increase of the take-off distance and increase of the landing distance

C) Increase of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance

D) Decrease of the take-off distance and decrease of the landing distance

2 / 20

2. Q19 When do you expect wind shear?

A) During a summer day with calm winds

B) During an inversion

C) When passing a warm front

D) In calm wind in cold weather

3 / 20

3. Q42 Which method is appropriate to approach an unprepared landing field?

A) Terrain investigation to determine approach points and landing

B) Fast approach, performance check, and landing within a quick stop

C) Flat direct approach to ensure visual ground contact

D) Steep approach to keep the noise level low

4 / 20

4. Q39 A light aircraft intends to land behind a commercial airliner belonging to wake turbulence category “medium” or “heavy” on a long runway. How can the wake turbulence of the commercial aircraft be avoided?

A) By making a steep approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner’s touchdown point

B) By making a shallow approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner’s nose gear

C) By making a steep approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of the airliner’s nose gear

D) By making a shallow approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop before reaching the airliner’s touchdown point

5 / 20

5. Q60 How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?

A) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes

B) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully

C) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully

D) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes

6 / 20

6. Q55 What minimum coverage with ice or snow must be given to call a runway “contaminated”?

A) 0.5

B) 0.25

C) 0.75

D) 0.1

7 / 20

7. Q13 What should be the first action in case of a cable fire during a flight?

A) Close the fuel valve

B) Open cabin ventialtion

C) Open the windows

D) Turn off the master switch

8 / 20

8. Q27 How can a wind shear encounter in flight be avoided?

A) Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms

B) Avoid areas of precipitation, particularly during winter, and choose low flight altitudes

C) Avoid thermally active areas, particularly during summer, or stay below these areas

D) Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay in flat country whenever possible

9 / 20

9. Q50 After a precautionary landing the brakes and wheels are very hot. In which way should the pilot approach them?

A) From the right or left side

B) From the front, right or left side

C) From the front or back side

10 / 20

10. Q5 When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures?

A) During the approach

B) In descent

C) In climb

D) In horizontal flight

11 / 20

11. Q12 Smoke enters the cockpit during an engine fire. Which actions have to be taken immediately?

A) Switching off the avionics and the cabin lighting

B) Switching off the pitot and front window heating

C) Switching off the heating and the ventilating system

D) Switching off the master switch and the ignition

12 / 20

12. Q2 What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing?

A) Transponder code 7600 has to be set during the whole flight

B) For all passengers there must be life jackets or lifeboats present

C) The flight plan has to contain the exact waypoints

D) Contact to the nearest ATC shall consist during the whole flight

13 / 20

13. Q35 The intensity of wake turbulence depends on…

A) the temperature.

B) the propeller pitch.

C) the altitude of the aeroplane.

D) the weight of the aeroplane.

14 / 20

14. Q49 Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing include?

A) How to read an emergency checklist, how to cut the engine, telephone number of the home airport

B) Blood type of the other aircraft occupants, location of the first-aid kit

C) Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing

D) How to work the aircraft radio, emergency transponder squawk, telephone number of the competent search and rescue (SAR) center

15 / 20

15. Q18 Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear?

A) Thunderstorms.

B) Stable high pressure areas.

C) Fog.

D) Invernal warm front.

16 / 20

16. Q25 Which phenomenon may be expected at point 2 of the microburst? See figure (OPR-001)Siehe Anlage 1

A) Decrease of descent rate

B) Increase of airspeed

C) Constant rate of descent

D) Decrease of climb rate

17 / 20

17. Q22 During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?

A) Path is higher, IAS increases

B) Path is lower, IAS increases

C) Path is higher, IAS decreases

D) Path is lower, IAS decreases

18 / 20

18. Q21 During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?

A) Path is lower, IAS increases

B) Path is lower, IAS decreases

C) Path is higher, IAS decreases

D) Path is higher, IAS increases

19 / 20

19. Q38 With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane?

A) Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher.

B) Wake turbulence on or near the runway.

C) Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted.

D) Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway.

20 / 20

20. Q44 An emergency landing is a landing…

A) conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.

B) conducted without power from the engine.

C) conducted with the flaps retracted.

D) conducted in an attempt to keep up safety regarding an aircraft and its occupants.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Communication

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Communication

1 / 20

1. Q55 Which information from a ground station does not require readback?

A) Traffic information

B) Altimeter setting

C) Taxi instructions

D) Heading

2 / 20

2. Q60 What does a cloud coverage of “FEW” mean in a METAR weather report?

A) 3 to 4 eighths

B) 1 to 2 eighths

C) 5 to 7 eighths

D) 8 eighths

3 / 20

3. Q43 What is the call sign of the surface movement control?

A) Ground

B) Earth

C) Control

D) Tower

4 / 20

4. Q35 What is the meaning of the phrase “Approved”?

A) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is…

B) I understand your message and will comply with it

C) Permission for proposed action is granted

D) I have received all of your last transmission

5 / 20

5. Q50 What does a readability of 1 indicate?

A) The transmission is unreadable

B) The transmission is readable but with difficulty

C) The transmission is readable now and then

D) The transmission is perfectly readable

6 / 20

6. Q41 What phrase is used by a pilot to inform the tower about a go-around?

A) No landing

B) Approach canceled

C) Going around

D) Pulling up

7 / 20

7. Q18 Which Q-code is used for the true bearing to the station?

A) QUJ

B) QDR

C) QDM

D) QTE

8 / 20

8. Q42 What is the call sign of the aerodrome control?

A) Ground

B) Airfield

C) Control

D) Tower

9 / 20

9. Q86 What is the approximate speed of electromagnetic wave propagation?

A) 123000 km/s

B) 300000 m/s

C) 300000 km/s

D) 123000 m/s

10 / 20

10. Q71 On what frequency shall a blind transmission be made?

A) On a radar frequency of the lower airspace

B) On the current frequency

C) On a tower frequency

D) On the appropriate FIS frequency

11 / 20

11. Q58 What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction “Squawk 4321, Call Bremen Radar on 131.325”?

A) Roger

B) Squawk 4321, 131.325

C) Squawk 4321, wilco

D) Wilco

12 / 20

12. Q75 Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?

A) Approval has been granted before

B) It is the destination aerodrome

C) There are other aircraft in the aerodrome circuit

D) It ist the aerodrome of departure

13 / 20

13. Q73 In what situation is it appropriate to set the transponder code 7600?

A) Hijacking

B) Emergency

C) Flight into clouds

D) Loss of radio

14 / 20

14. Q53 What does a readability of 5 indicate?

A) The transmission is readable but with difficulty

B) The transmission is perfectly readable

C) The transmission is readable now and then

D) The transmission is unreadable

15 / 20

15. Q36 Which phrase does a pilot use when he / she wants to check the readability of his / her transmission?

A) Request readability

B) How do you read?

C) What is the communication like?

D) You read me five

16 / 20

16. Q64 In what case is visibility transmitted in meters?

A) Greater than 5 km

B) Greater than 10 km

C) Up to 10 km

D) Up to 5 km

17 / 20

17. Q62 What does a cloud coverage of “BKN” mean in a METAR weather report?

A) 1 to 2 eighths

B) 8 eighths

C) 3 to 4 eighths

D) 5 to 7 eighths

18 / 20

18. Q3 Which abbreviation is used for the term “abeam”?

A) ABM

B) ABE

C) ABB

D) ABA

19 / 20

19. Q52 What does a readability of 3 indicate?

A) The transmission is perfectly readable

B) The transmission is readable now and then

C) The transmission is readable but with difficulty

D) The transmission is unreadable

20 / 20

20. Q77 Urgency messages are defined as…

A) messages concerning urgent spare parts which are needed for a continuation of flight and which need to be ordered in advance.

B) messages concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance.

C) messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight.

D) information concerning the apron personell and which imply an imminent danger to landing aircraft.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Law

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Law

1 / 20

1. Q24 A flight is called a “visual flight”, if the…

A) flight is conducted in visual meteorological conditions.

B) visibility in flight is more than 5 km.

C) flight is conducted under visual flight rules.

D) visibility in flight is more than 8 km.

2 / 20

2. Q90 What is shown on the printed sign? See figure (ALW-020)

A) The complete length of the runway in the stated direction is 2500 m

B) 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the departure point of the runway

C) 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the parking area

D) From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction

3 / 20

3. Q53 Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace “E”?

A) VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic

B) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic

C) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic

D) VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic

4 / 20

4. Q25 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “VMC”?

A) Visual flight rules

B) Visual meteorological conditions

C) Instrument flight conditions

D) Variable meteorological conditions

5 / 20

5. Q78 What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome?

A) It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects

B) It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed

C) It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-flying aircraft

D) Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance

6 / 20

6. Q66 Which statement is correct with regard to the term “taxi holding point”?

A) A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed is given

B) A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions are prevailing

C) A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed is given

D) A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be crossed when a taxi clearance is given

7 / 20

7. Q13 The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is…

A) 12 Months.

B) 48 Months.

C) 24 Months.

D) 60 Months.

8 / 20

8. Q1 Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight? a) Certificate of aircraft registration b) Certificate of airworthiness c) Airworthiness review certificate d) EASA Form-1 e) Airplane logbook f) Appropriate papers for every crew member g) Technical logbook

A) b, c, d, e, f, g

B) a, b, c, e, f

C) d, f, g

D) a, b, e, g

9 / 20

9. Q49 Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?

A) 7000

B) 7700

C) 7500

D) 7600

10 / 20

10. Q7 The “Certificate of Airworthiness” is issued by the state…

A) in which the airworthiness review is done.

B) in which the aircraft is registered.

C) in which the aircraft is constructed.

D) of the residence of the owner.

11 / 20

11. Q42 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?

A) You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

B) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area

C) You may continue your flight

D) Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield

12 / 20

12. Q91 What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome? See figure (ALW-011) (1,00 P.)

A) After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right

B) Landing prohibited for a longer period

C) Glider flying is in progress

D) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

13 / 20

13. Q87 Which is the colour of runway edge lights?

A) White

B) Green

C) Blue

D) Red

14 / 20

14. Q6 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “ARC”?

A) Airspace Rulemaking Committee

B) Airworthiness Recurring Control

C) Airworthiness Review Certificate

D) Airspace Restriction Criteria

15 / 20

15. Q74 What is the meaning of a flashing white light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

A) Cleared for take-off

B) Return to starting point

C) Cleared to taxi

D) Clear the taxiway / runway

16 / 20

16. Q96 With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories regarding aircraft occurrences?

A) Event Crash Disaster

B) Event Serious event Accident

C) Incident Serious incident Accident

D) Happening Event Serious event

17 / 20

17. Q36 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL125?

A) 3000 m

B) 8000 m

C) 5000 m

D) 1500 m

18 / 20

18. Q29 Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required minimum height?

A) Take-off or landing at an aerodrome

B) The drop of towed objects at an aerodrome

C) Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome

D) An approach without landing at an aerodrome

19 / 20

19. Q14 In which way is a SEP (land) rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight time?

A) A proficiency check with an examiner

B) The ATO can renew the rating after a training flight with a flight instructor

C) According to the flight experience there have to be several training flights under supervision of an ATO

D) The required flight experience has to be accumulated under supervision of a flight instructor

20 / 20

20. Q89 What is shown on the printed sign? See figure (ALW-019)

A) Taxiway A

B) Part A of the runway

C) Point A on a taxiway

D) Parking position A

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Meteorology Quiz

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Meteorology

1 / 20

1. What is meant by ‘inversion layer’?

A) An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height

B) An atmospheric layer where temperature decreases with increasing height

C) A boundary area between two other layers within the atmosphere

D) An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height

2 / 20

2. Winds blowing downhill are defined as…

A) anabatic winds.

B) katabatic winds.

C) subsident winds.

D) convergent winds.

3 / 20

3. Measured pressure distribution in MSL and corresponding frontal systems are displayed by the…

A) hypsometric chart.

B) surface weather chart.

C) Significant Weather Chart (SWC).

D) prognostic chart.

4 / 20

4. What visual flight conditions can be expected after the passage of a cold front?

A) Scattered cloud layers, visbility more than 5 km, formation of shallow cumulus clouds

B) Medium visibility with lowering cloud bases, onset of prolonged precipitation

C) Good visiblity, formation of cumulus clouds with showers of rain or snow

D) Poor visibility, formation of overcast or ground-covering stratus clouds, snow

5 / 20

5. The pressure which is measured at a ground station and reduced to mean sea level (MSL) by means of the actual atmospheric conditions is called…

A) QFF.

B) QFE.

C) QNE.

D) QNH.

6 / 20

6. The symbol labeled (3) as shown in the picture is a / an… See figure (MET-005) Siehe Anlage 4

A) cold front.

B) occlusion.

C) warm front.

D) front aloft.

7 / 20

7. How can wind speed and wind direction be derived from surface weather charts?

A) By alignment and distance of hypsometric lines

B) By annotations from the text part of the chart

C) By alignment of lines of warm- and cold fronts.

D) By alignment and distance of isobaric lines

8 / 20

8. How do spread and relative humidity change with increasing temperature?

A) Spread remains constant, relative humidity decreases

B) Spread increases, relative humidity increases

C) Spread remains constant, relative humidity increases

D) Spread increases, relative humidity decreases

9 / 20

9. What change of wind direction can be expected during the passage of a polar front low in Central Europe?

A) Veering wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front

B) Backing wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front

C) Backing wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front

D) Veering wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front

10 / 20

10. What weather phenomenon designated by ‘2’ has to be expected on the lee side during ‘Foehn’ conditions? See figure (MET-001). Siehe Anlage 1

A) Altocumulus Castellanus

B) Altocumulus lenticularis

C) Cumulonimbus

D) Nimbostratus

11 / 20

11. Which type of cloud is associated with prolonged rain?

A) Nimbostratus

B) Cirrostratus

C) Cumulonimbus

D) Altocumulus

12 / 20

12. SIGMET warnings are issued for…

A) countries.

B) airports.

C) FIRs / UIRs.

D) specific routings.

13 / 20

13. What is the gas composition of ‘air’?

A) Oxygen 78 % Water vapour 21 % Nitrogen 1 %

B) Oxygen 21 % Nitrogen 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

C) Nitrogen 21 % Oxygen 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

D) Oxygen 21 % Water vapour 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %

14 / 20

14. What cloud type does the picture show? See figure (MET-004). Siehe Anlage 3

A) Altocumulus

B) Cumulus

C) Cirrus

D) Stratus

15 / 20

15. What factors may indicate a tendency to fog formation?

A) Low pressure, increasing temperature

B) Low spread, increasing temperature

C) Low spread, decreasing temperature

D) Strong winds, decreasing temperature

16 / 20

16. The altimeter can be checked on the ground by setting…

A) QFE and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

B) QFF and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

C) QNE and checking that the indication shows zero on the ground.

D) QNH and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

17 / 20

17. An inversion is a layer …

A) with increasing temperature with increasing height.

B) with decreasing temperature with increasing height.

C) with increasing pressure with increasing height.

D) with constant temperature with increasing height.

18 / 20

18. What conditions are mandatory for the formation of thermal thunderstorms?

A) Conditionally unstable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity

B) Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and low humidity

C) Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity

D) Conditionally unstable atmosphere, low temperature and low humidity

19 / 20

19. What weather phenomena have to be expected around an upper-level trough?

A) Development of showers and thunderstorms (Cb)

B) Calm wind, forming of shallow cumulus clouds

C) Formation of high stratus clouds, ground-covering cloud bases

D) Calm weather, formation of lifted fog layers

20 / 20

20. Which type of ice forms by large, supercooled droplets hitting the front surfaces of an aircraft?

A) Clear ice

B) Hoar frost

C) Rime ice

D) Mixed ice

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 7, 2021 by PAUL KING.

New image of the Iguana Rose Hammock

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We just added the cutout image of the Iguana Rose hammock
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This entry was posted in Uncategorized and tagged blog on May 6, 2016 by PAUL KING.

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