Author Archives: PAUL KING

Principles Of Flight

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Principles Of Flight

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1. Q8 If surrounded by airflow (v>0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces…

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2. Q15 Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 3? See figure (PFA-009)Siehe Anlage 2

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3. Q25 Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack decreases?

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4. Q49 What leads to a decreased stall speed Vs (IAS)?

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5. Q2 Stabilization around the lateral axis during cruise is achieved by the…

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6. Q57 What is the principle of a Fowler flap?

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7. Q29 Which statement concerning the angle of attack is correct?

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8. Q39 How do induced drag and parasite drag change with increasing airspeed during a horizontal and stable cruise flight?

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9. Q63 How does a laminar boundary layer differ from a turbulent boundary layer?

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10. Q52 How should the pilot react to an engaged stall warning?

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11. Q51 In motorplanes the stall warning is usually activated by a change of…

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12. Q102 What is the diffeence between spin and spiral dive?

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13. Q50 The stall warning will be activated just before reaching which speed?

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14. Q66 Which constructive feature is shown in the figure? See figure (PFA-006) L: LiftSiehe Anlage 4

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15. Q36 Which curve represents the induced drag? See Appendix (PFA-011)

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16. Q31 The drag coefficient…

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17. Q22 In which way does the position of the center of pressure move at a positively shaped profile with increasing angle of attack?

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18. Q32 Pressure compensation on an wing occurs at the…

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19. Q56 Which factor can be changed by deploying flaps for landing?

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20. Q72 The critical angle of attack…

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General

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General

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1. Q125 The slip indicator’s ball (apparent vertical) has moved to the right during a right turn. By what actions may the ball led back to middle position?

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2. Q36 Which of the following are an aircraft’s secondary flight controls?

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3. Q5 A construction made of frames and stringer with a supporting skin is called…

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4. Q78 Which is the purpose of the altimeter subscale?

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5. Q49 Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment? See figure (AGK-008)Siehe Anlage 6

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6. Q47 Which cylinder arragement is commonly used on small aircrafts and motor gliders?

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7. Q86 The measurement of altitude is based on the change of the…

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8. Q123 The term “inclination” is defined as…

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9. Q104 The term “static pressure” is defined as pressure…

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10. Q68 With increasing altitude and unchanged mixture setting, the air/fuel mixture…

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11. Q61 What happens during oil filter clocking?

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12. Q114 The Caution Area is marked on an airspeed indicator by what color?

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13. Q10 The load factor “n” describes the relationship between…

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14. Q42 What is the unit for electrical power?

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15. Q35 The trim is used to…

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16. Q107 What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass?

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17. Q101 Which cockpit instruments are connected to the static port?

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18. Q117 A horizontal situation indicator (HSI) combines the information provided by…

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19. Q92 Which of the following factors could cause an erroneous airspeed indication?

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20. Q16 Number 1 on the gear designates the… See figure (AGK-005)Siehe Anlage 3

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Navigation

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Navigation

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1. Q134 How many satellites are necessary for a precise and verified three-dimensional determination of the position?

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2. Q137 What ground features should preferrably be used for orientation during visual flight?

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3. Q34 Which direction corresponds to ‘compass north’ (CN)?

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4. Q26 The angle between the magnetic course and the true course is called…

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5. Q115 The progress of an electromagnetic oscillation can be described by the…

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6. Q27 The term ‚magnetic course’ (MC) is defined as…

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7. Q58 An aircraft travels 110 NM within 01:25. The ground speed (GS) equals…

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8. Q41 What could be a reason for changing the runway indicators at aerodromes (e.g. from runway 06 to runway 07)?

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9. Q108 Non-directional beacons (NDBs) transmit within which frequency band?

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10. Q33 The angle between compass north and magnetic north is called…

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11. Q128 Which instantaneous information can be obtained from ground radar equipment?

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12. Q81 An aircraft is flying from ‘A’ to ‘B’ (distance 220 NM) at an average ground speed (GS) of 120 kt. It departs ‘A’ at 1200 UTC. After 70 NM along the course from ‘A’, the aircraft is 5 min ahead of the planned schedule. Using the actual GS, what is the revised estimated time of arrival (ETA) at B?

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13. Q117 When transmitter and receiver are moving away from each other…

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14. Q91 Which equipment is needed on board of an aircraft to use a VHF direction finder (VDF)?

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15. Q119 A VOR radial corresponds to the…

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16. Q87 Radio waves within the LF and MF range (e.g. NDB) travel as…

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17. Q130 What is the difference between primary and secondary radar?

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18. Q44 How are rhumb lines and great circles depicted on a direct Mercator chart?

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19. Q46 Which lines have to be used by the pilot to determine the aircraft’s position?

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20. Q6 The circumference of the Earth at the equator is approximately… See figure (NAV-002)Siehe Anlage 1

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Planning

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Planning

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1. Q22 The balance arm is the horizontal distance between…

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2. Q15 The term “center of gravity” is defined as…

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3. Q88 In comparison to the true airspeed in still air conditions, the TAS in a strong tailwind will be…

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4. Q49 The end of the green arc (4) indicates which airspeed? See figure (PFP-008)Siehe Anlage 8

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5. Q38 How does wind affect the take-off performance?

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6. Q92 During a VFR flight the remaining usable fuel at a checkpoint is 80 USG. Reserve fuel is 20 USG, remaining flight time according to flight plan is 2h 20min. What is the highest acceptable fuel flow (FF) for the rest of the trip? (2,00 P.)

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7. Q6 An aircraft must be loaded and operated in such a way that the center of gravity (CG) stays within the approved limits during all phases of flight. This is done to ensure…

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8. Q45 The speed Vy is defined as…

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9. Q97 Given the following data for a VFR flight: Trip fuel = 70 US gallons Contingency fuel = 5% of trip fuel Alternate and final reserve fuel = 20 US gallons Usable fuel at take-off = 95 US gallons After half of the distance you read that you have consumed 40 US gallons. Assume that fuel flow remains unchanged. Which statement is correct? (2,00 P.)

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10. Q26 The position of the center of gravity equals… See figure (PFP-052e)Siehe Anlage 1

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11. Q89 What happens to the true airspeed at a constant indicated airspeed during a climb?

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12. Q99 (For this question, please use annex PFP-061) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 22

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13. Q94 (For this questions, use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Planning a flight from EDWH (Oldenburg Hatten) to EDWF (Leer Papenburg), the following conditions apply: Cruise level = FL 65 Temperature = ISA+20 Cruise weight = 3400 lbs Power setting = 23.0 in. HG @ 2300 RPM What Indicated Airspeed (IAS) and Fuel Flow (FF) can be expected? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 21

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14. Q27 What mass equals 102 litres of Avgas 100LL?

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15. Q11 The conversion factor from kilogram [kg] into pounds [lb] is…

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16. Q100 (For this question, please use annex PFP-062) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a civil airport (not international airport) with paved runway? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 23

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17. Q21 The distance between the center of gravity and the datum is called…

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18. Q16 The center of gravity (CG) defines…

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19. Q55 What is the take-off distance at 750 kg take-off mass, standard (ISA) conditions at an elevation of 4000 ft with 5 kt tailwind? See annex (PFP-009)Siehe Anlage 9

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20. Q93 (For this questions, use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Planning a flight from EDWF (Leer Papenburg) to EDWH (Oldenburg Hatten), the following conditions apply: Cruise level = FL 75 Temperature = ISA Cruise weight = 3400 lbs Power setting = 23.0 in. HG @ 2300 RPM Determine True Airspeed (TAS) and Fuel Flow (FF): (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 21

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Human

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Human

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1. Q17 What is the function of the white blood cells (leucocytes)?

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2. Q29 Wings level after a longer period of turning can lead to the impression of…

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3. Q16 Which of the following is responsible for the blood coagulation?

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4. Q11 Which of the following symptoms may indicate hypoxia?

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5. Q33 Which optical illusion might be caused by a runway with an upslope during the approach?

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6. Q2 The “swiss cheese model” can be used to explain the…

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7. Q8 What does the term “Red-out” mean?

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8. Q4 The center of gravity has to be located…

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9. Q40 A risk factor for decompression sickness is…

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10. Q42 For what approximate time period can the short-time memory store information?

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11. Q25 Which characteristic is important when choosing sunglasses used by pilots?

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12. Q48 Under which circumstances is it more likely to accept higher risks?

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13. Q43 What is a latent error?

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14. Q12 Which of the human senses is most influenced by hypoxia?

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15. Q9 Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by…

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16. Q56 At which point in the diagram will a pilot find himself to be overstrained? See figure (HPL-002) P = Perfromance A = Arousal / StressSiehe Anlage 1

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17. Q32 A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of…

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18. Q58 Which answer is correct concerning stress?

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19. Q51 What is an indication for a macho attitude?

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20. Q3 What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 6000 ft?

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Procedures

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Procedures

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1. Q17 A wind shear is…

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2. Q57 What danger does standing water on the runway pose to aircraft?

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3. Q9 Which danger exists during engine start?

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4. Q61 During final approach, the glider pilot realizes a very bumpy surface on a selected off field landing site. What technique may be recommended for landing?

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5.  What action should be taken when entering a windshear? 

  1. Reduce speed 
  2. Retract gear and flaps 
  3. Maintain current configuration 
  4. Adjust thrust (1,00 P.)

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6. Q11 Which gas is most dangerous during an engine fire?

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7. Q60 How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?

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8. Q16 In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot’s operating manual, should be taken?

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9. Q55 What minimum coverage with ice or snow must be given to call a runway “contaminated”?

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10. Q23 After take-off an aeroplane gets into a wind shear with decreasing headwind. As a result…

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11. Q56 Wet snow on a runway can lead to…

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12. Q2 What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing?

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13. Q18 Which weather phenomenon is typically associated with wind shear?

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14. Q5 When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures?

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15. Q21 During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?

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16. Q15 In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot’s operating manual, should be taken?

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17. Which of the items below may have an influence on the noise perceived by a person  on the ground? 

1) Engine power setting 

2) Propeller revolutions per minute 

3) Position of the landing gear 

4) Flap position 

5) Flight track 

6) Height above ground 

7) Flight rules (1,00 P.)

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18. Q36 Two aircraft of the same type, same grossweight and same configuration fly at different airspeeds. Which aircraft will cause more severe wake turbulence?

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19. Q31 Wake turbulences develop during take-off just as the aeroplane…

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20. Q49 Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing include?

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Communication

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Communication

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1. Q31 Times are transmitted as…

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2. Q72 How often shall a blind transmission be made?

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3. Q47 What is the correct way of using the aircraft call sign at first contact?

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4. Q41 What phrase is used by a pilot to inform the tower about a go-around?

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5. Q9 What does the abbreviation “HX” stand for?

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6. Q76 Which phrase is to be repeated three times before transmitting an urgency message?

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7. Q84 What is the correct designation of the frequency band from 118.000 to 136.975 MHz used for voice communication?

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8. Q60 What does a cloud coverage of “FEW” mean in a METAR weather report?

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9. Q29 A frequency of 119.500 MHz is correctly transmitted as…

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10. Q79 What is the correct frequency for an initial distress message?

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11. Q80 What kind of information should be included in an urgency message?

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12. Q2 Leaving a control frequency (except when reaching the final parking position)…

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13. Q75 Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?

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14. Q63 Given a visibility of 12 km, what is the correct way to transmit this visibility?

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15. Q16 Which Q-code is used for the magnetic bearing from the station?

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16. Q66 What information is broadcasted on a VOLMET frequency?

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17. Q11 Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QNH?

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18. Q38 What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with “yes”?

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19. Q69 Which transponder code indicates a radio failure?

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20. Q57 What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction “Next report PAH”?

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Law

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Law

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1. Q10 What is the period of validity of a private pilot license (PPL)?

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2. Q42 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?

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3. Q28 In airspace “D” a Boeing 737 and a Cessna 152 are flying on crossing courses. Which aeroplane has to divert?

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4. Q97 What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation?

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5. Q7 The “Certificate of Airworthiness” is issued by the state…

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6. Q52 Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?

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7. Q32 The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is…

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8. Q23 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “IFR”?

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9. Q37 What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace “B”?

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10. Q94 Who provides search and rescue service?

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11. Q33 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” for an aircraft operating under VFR at 5000 ft MSL?

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12. Q58 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “AIREP”?

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13. Q16 What is the minimum age to start a private pilot training at a flight school?

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14. Q19 What has to be considered when entering an RMZ?

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15. Q65 The term “runway” is defined as a…

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16. Q48 Which transponder code indicates a loss of radio communication?

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17. Q47 A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a…

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18. Q90 What is shown on the printed sign? See figure (ALW-020)

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19. Q22 What is the meaning of an area marked as “TMZ”?

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20. Q79 In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight?

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Meteorology Quiz

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Meteorology

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1. What conditions are mandatory for the formation of thermal thunderstorms?

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2. Measured pressure distribution in MSL and corresponding frontal systems are displayed by the…

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3. SIGMET warnings are issued for…

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4. What are the air masses that Central Europe is mainly influenced by?

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5. The movement of air flowing apart is called…

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6. How is an air mass described when moving to Central Europe via the Russian continent during winter?

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7. Which of the stated surfaces will reduce the wind speed most due to ground friction?

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8. What visual flight conditions can be expected after the passage of a cold front?

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9. Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected…

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10. What phenomenon is caused by cold air downdrafts with precipitation from a fully developed thunderstorm cloud?

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11. What weather development will result from convergence at ground level?

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12. Which answer contains every state of water found in the atmosphere?

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13. What cloud sequence can typically be observed during the passage of a warm front?

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14. The barometric altimeter with QFE setting indicates…

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15. What process results in the formation of ‘orographic fog’ (‘hill fog’)?

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16. An inversion layer close to the ground can be caused by…

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17. Copy – What clouds and weather may result from an humid and instable air mass, that is  pushed against a chain of mountains by the predominant wind and forced to rise? 

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18. How do dew point and relative humidity change with decreasing temperature?

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19. The symbol labeled (2) as shown in the picture is a / an… See figure (MET-005) Siehe Anlage 4

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20. With other factors remaining constant, decreasing temperature results in…

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