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Principles Of Flight

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Principles Of Flight

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1. Q19 What pattern can be found at the stagnation point?

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2. Q17 Wing tip vortex development begins during which phase of flight?

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3. Q95 Point number 1 in the figure indicates which flight state? See figure (PFA-008)Siehe Anlage 5

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4. Q100 The pressure compensation between wind upper and lower surface results in …

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5. Q13 The angle of attack is the angle between…

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6. Q77 What has to be considered with regard to the center of gravity position?

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7. Q88 The trim tab at the elevator is defelected upwards. In which position is the corresponding indicator?

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8. Q81 Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw?

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9. Q1 Compared to trailing edge flaps, leading edge devices like Slots…

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10. Q50 The stall warning will be activated just before reaching which speed?

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11. Q55 With regard to flaps, which of the following options provides a lift-increasing effect?

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12. Q25 Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack decreases?

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13. Q8 If surrounded by airflow (v>0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces…

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14. Q42 Which statement about induced drag during the horizontal cruise flight is correct?

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15. Q16 Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 4? See figure (PFA-009)Siehe Anlage 2

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16. Q43 In which mentioned situation is the total drag at its minimum?

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17. Q15 Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 3? See figure (PFA-009)Siehe Anlage 2

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18. Q83 The right aileron deflects upwards, the left downwards. How does the aircraft react?

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19. Q34 Which parts of an aircraft mainly affect the generation of induced drag?

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20. Q40 Which of the listed wing shapes has the lowest induced drag?

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General

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General

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1. Q14 Reasons for dents in the helicopter structure are…

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2. Q87 Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator?

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3. Q92 Which of the following factors could cause an erroneous airspeed indication?

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4. Q37 What has to be considered during refueling?

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5. Q57 In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be expected?

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6. Q112 The airspeed indicator is unservicable. The airplane may only be operated…

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7. Q21 What kind of control surface is connected with the nose wheel?

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8. Q20 Where is the brake system installed to slow the aircraft on ground?

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9. Q76 QFE is the…

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10. Q52 Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?

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11. Q23 About how many axes does an aircraft move and how are these axes called?

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12. Q27 What is the effect of pulling the control yoke or stick backwards?

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13. Q84 During a flight in an air mass with a temperature equal to ISA and the QNH set correctly, the indicated altitude is…

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14. Q10 The load factor “n” describes the relationship between…

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15. Q30 What is the purpose of the secondary flight controls?

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16. Q1 The thickness of the wing is defined as the distance between the lower and the upper side of the wing at the…

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17. Q44 What must be considered if the alternator fails in a helicopter?

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18. Q109 A gyro which is rotating in space responds to forces being applied to it by an evasive movement…

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19. Q71 Which gauges involve a measurement of temperature?

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20. Q101 Which cockpit instruments are connected to the static port?

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Navigation

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Navigation

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1. Q124 The distance measuring equipment (DME) determines the distance based on the principle of…

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2. Q121 Where is the aircraft located in relation to the VOR? See annex (NAV-022)Siehe Anlage 7

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3. Q33 The angle between compass north and magnetic north is called…

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4. Q44 How are rhumb lines and great circles depicted on a direct Mercator chart?

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5. Q132 The transponder code in case of a radio communication failure is…

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6. Q4 Which statement about a rhumb line is correct?

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7. Q5 The shortest distance between two points on Earth is represented by a part of…

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8. Q45 Which are the properties of a Lambert conformal chart?

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9. Q136 What is meant by the term “terrestrial navigation”?

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10. Q123 The range of a VOR is affected by…

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11. Q32 Where does the inclination reach its lowest value?

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12. Q134 How many satellites are necessary for a precise and verified three-dimensional determination of the position?

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13. Q35 The term ‘isogonal’ or ‘isogonic line’ is defined as a line on an aeronautical chart, connecting all points with the same value of…

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14. Q28 The term ‘True Course’ (TC) is defined as…

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15. Q90 A VHF direction finder (VDF) can determine…

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16. Q19 UTC is…

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17. Q60 An aircraft is flying with a true airspeed (TAS) of 120 kt and experiences 35 kt tailwind. How much time is needed for a distance of 185 NM?

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18. Q38 1000 ft equal…

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19. Q127 Using primary ground radar, the direction of the aeroplane in relation to the antenna is determined by…

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20. Q113 The shoreline effect is greatest with radio wave propagation…

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Planning

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Planning

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1. The result of a front C.G. position is: 

  1. Increase in stability. 
  2. Increase in fuel consumption. 
  3. Increase in stall speed. 
  4. Increase in range. (1,00 P.)

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2. Q16 The center of gravity (CG) defines…

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3. Q35 Which is the most recently determined empty mass and the associated center of gravity (CG) arm from the aircraft documentation? See annex (PFP-006)Siehe Anlage 6

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4. Q39 It is possible that the surface wind speed at an airport is reduced due to friction. When a surface area with a minor tailwind condition is left during the initial climb, the pilot might expect…

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5. Q31 The position of the center of gravity (including fuel) equals… See figure(PFP-053e)Siehe Anlage 2

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6. Q45 The speed Vy is defined as…

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7. Q9 The empty weight and the corresponding center of gravity (CG) of an aircraft are initially determined…

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8. Q57 A pilot wants to take off on runway 36, the reported wind is 240 degrees 12 knots. What are the wind components acting on the aircraft on take-off and landing?

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9. Q55 What is the take-off distance at 750 kg take-off mass, standard (ISA) conditions at an elevation of 4000 ft with 5 kt tailwind? See annex (PFP-009)Siehe Anlage 9

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10. Q81 According to the aeronautical chart, Friesach/Hirt (LOKH) has a 707 m grass runway. Prevailing runway is 17 due to a surface wind of 18010KT. The required landing distance for your aircraft under present conditions is 550 m. Considering the NOTAM below ,is it safe to plan LOKH as an alternate aerodrome? See figure (PFP-026)Siehe Anlage 17

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11. Q88 In comparison to the true airspeed in still air conditions, the TAS in a strong tailwind will be…

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12. Q6 An aircraft must be loaded and operated in such a way that the center of gravity (CG) stays within the approved limits during all phases of flight. This is done to ensure…

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13. Q75 The VFR semicircular rules are based on the…

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14. Q24 When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the following is required?

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15. Q96 (For this questions use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) For planning a VFR flight, the following data are given: Flight time with planning “overhead-overhead” = 2h 42min Pressure Altitude = 7.500 ft Temperature = ISA Power setting = 2300 RPM Taxi Fuel = 2 USG Additional time for climb = 8 min, Additional time for approach and landing = 10 min The reserve fuel has to be 30% of trip fuel. Determine the minimum block fuel: (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 21

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16. Q25 Which section of the flight manual describes the basic empty mass of an aircraft?

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17. Q54 A pilot wants to take off on runway 36, the reported wind is 240 degrees, 12 knots. What is the value of the wind components acting on the aircraft on take-off and landing?

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18. Q42 The speed Vx means…

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19. Q83 The EOBT (estimated off-block time) is specified in the ATS flight plan as…

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20. Q27 What mass equals 102 litres of Avgas 100LL?

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Human

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Human

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1. Q2 The “swiss cheese model” can be used to explain the…

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2. Q43 What is a latent error?

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3. Q35 The occurence of a vertigo is most likely when moving the head…

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4. Q4 The center of gravity has to be located…

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5. Q4 What is the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere?

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6. Q1 A flight plan has been files for a flight departing at an uncontrolled aerodrome. When has the actual take-off time been transmitted to ATC?

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7. Q21 What is an appropriate reaction when a passenger during cruise flight suddenly feels uncomfortable?

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8. Q25 Which characteristic is important when choosing sunglasses used by pilots?

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9. Q9 Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by…

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10. Q11 Which of the following symptoms may indicate hypoxia?

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11. Q16 Which of the following is responsible for the blood coagulation?

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12. Q32 A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of…

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13. Q50 Which dangerous attitudes are often combined?

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14. Q42 For what approximate time period can the short-time memory store information?

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15. Q13 From which altitude on does the body usually react to the decreasing atmospheric pressure?

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16. Q38 The average decrease of blood alcohol level for an adult in one hour is approximately…

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17. Q36 A Grey-out is the result of…

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18. Q8 What does the term “Red-out” mean?

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19. Q56 At which point in the diagram will a pilot find himself to be overstrained? See figure (HPL-002) P = Perfromance A = Arousal / StressSiehe Anlage 1

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20. Q47 In what different ways can a risk be handled appropriately?

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Procedures

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Procedures

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1. Q46 A precautionary landing is a landing…

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2. Q50 After a precautionary landing the brakes and wheels are very hot. In which way should the pilot approach them?

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3. Q19 When do you expect wind shear?

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4. Q49 Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing include?

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5. Q16 In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot’s operating manual, should be taken?

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6. Q15 In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected. Which action, with respect to the pilot’s operating manual, should be taken?

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7. Q47 Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing?

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8. Q29 After lift-off, a much stronger than expected airspeed rise is experienced during the initial climb phase. What may be expected if the aeroplane entered a microburst?

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9. Q24 How may windshear be recognised in flight?

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10. Q5 When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise abatement procedures?

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11. Q59 Which would be the correct reaction when hydroplaning is suspected upon landing?

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12. Which of the items below may have an influence on the noise perceived by a person  on the ground? 

1) Engine power setting 

2) Propeller revolutions per minute 

3) Position of the landing gear 

4) Flap position 

5) Flight track 

6) Height above ground 

7) Flight rules (1,00 P.)

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13. Q23 After take-off an aeroplane gets into a wind shear with decreasing headwind. As a result…

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14.  What action should be taken when entering a windshear? 

  1. Reduce speed 
  2. Retract gear and flaps 
  3. Maintain current configuration 
  4. Adjust thrust (1,00 P.)

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15. Q2 What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be reached in case of an emergency landing?

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16. Q6 How should departures near villages be carried out?

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17. Q60 How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?

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18. Q22 During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing tailwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?

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19. Q43 Which area is suitable for an off-field landing?

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20. Q7 Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire?

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Communication

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Communication

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1. Q19 Which of the listed radiotelephony messages has a higher priority than a flight safety message?

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2. Q20 What is the correct term for a message used for air traffic control?

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3. Q76 Which phrase is to be repeated three times before transmitting an urgency message?

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4. Q8 What does the abbreviation “H24” stand for?

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5. Q26 What is the correct way to transmit the call sign OE-JVK?

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6. Q75 Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?

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7. Q77 Urgency messages are defined as…

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8. Q40 Which phrase is to be used when a pilot wants the tower to know that he is ready for take-off?

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9. Q78 Distress messages contain…

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10. Q6 What does the abbreviation “FIS” stand for?

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11. Q16 Which Q-code is used for the magnetic bearing from the station?

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12. Q63 Given a visibility of 12 km, what is the correct way to transmit this visibility?

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13. Q52 What does a readability of 3 indicate?

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14. Q4 Which abbreviation is used for the term “visual flight rules”?

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15. Q44 What is the call sign of the flight information service?

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16. Q21 Distress messages are messages…

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17. Q82 Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication?

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18. Q5 Which abbreviation is used for the term “obstacle”?

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19. Q53 What does a readability of 5 indicate?

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20. Q10 The altimeter has to be set to what value in order to show zero on ground?

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Law

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Law

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1. Q53 Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace “E”?

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2. Q37 What are the minimum distances to clouds for a VFR flight in airspace “B”?

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3. Q77 Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?

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4. Q23 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “IFR”?

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5. Q29 Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required minimum height?

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6. Q36 What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace “C” for an aircraft operating under VFR at FL125?

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7. Q87 Which is the colour of runway edge lights?

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8. Q4 What is the status of the rules and procedures created by the EASA? (e.g. Part-SFCL, Part-MED)

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9. Q6 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “ARC”?

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10. Q51 Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?

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11. Q60 Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?

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12. Q56 What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light aircraft is following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category?

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13. Q76 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

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14. Q47 A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a…

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15. Q27 Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks. Which one has to divert?

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16. Q69 What does “WATER PATCHES” mean regarding the reported runway condition?

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17. Q85 What is a “PAPI” (Precision Approach Path Indicator)?

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18. Q18 What is the meaning of the abbreviation “TRA”?

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19. Q89 What is shown on the printed sign? See figure (ALW-019)

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20. Q72 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

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Meteorology Quiz

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Meteorology

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1. What cloud type does the picture show? See figure (MET-002). Siehe Anlage 2

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2. Which answer contains every state of water found in the atmosphere?

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3. The pressure which is measured at a ground station and reduced to mean sea level (MSL) by means of the actual atmospheric conditions is called…

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4. What weather conditions may be expected during conditionally unstable conditions?

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5. In a METAR, ‘heavy rain’ is designated by the identifier…

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6. What pressure pattern can be observed when a cold front is passing?

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7. What information can be obtained from satallite images?

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8. Which conditions are likely for the formation of advection fog?

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9. Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected…

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10. What weather is likely to be experienced during ‘Foehn’ in the Bavarian area close to the alps?

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11. What visual flight conditions can be expected after the passage of a cold front?

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12. What condition may prevent the formation of ‘radiation fog’?

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13. An inversion is a layer …

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14. The term ‘tropopause’ is defined as…

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15. How does inflowing cold air affect the shape and vertical distance between pressure layers?

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16. Mountain side updrafts can be intensified by …

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17. Weather phenomena are most common to be found in which atmospheric layer?

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18. The symbol labeled (3) as shown in the picture is a / an… See figure (MET-005) Siehe Anlage 4

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19. Weather and operational information about the destination aerodrome can be obtained during the flight by…

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20. The character of an air mass is given by what properties?

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