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Principles Of Flight

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Principles Of Flight

1 / 20

1. Q80 What is the advantage of differential aileron movement?

A) The total lift remains constant during aileron deflection

B) The drag of the downwards deflected aileron is lowered and the adverse yaw is smaller

C) The ratio of the drag coefficient to lift coefficient is increased

D) The adverse yaw is higher

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2. Q68 Stability around which axis is mainly influenced by the center of gravity’s longitudinal position?

A) Gravity axis

B) Vertical axis

C) Lateral axis

D) Longitudinal axis

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3. Q43 In which mentioned situation is the total drag at its minimum?

A) Induced drag is twice as much as parasite drag

B) Parasite drag is equal to induced drag

C) Parasite drag is twice as much as induced drag

D) Induced drag is smaller than parasite drag

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4. Q50 The stall warning will be activated just before reaching which speed?

A) VX

B) VNE

C) VR

D) VS

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5. Q72 The critical angle of attack…

A) is not changed by different aircraft weights.

B) decreases with a rear centre of gravity.

C) is changed by different aircraft weights.

D) increases with a front centre of gravity.

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6. Q89 What describes “wing loading”?

A) Wing area per weight

B) Drag per wing area

C) Drag per weight

D) Weight per wing area

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7. Q96 Point number 5 in the figure indicates which flight state? See figure (PFA-008)Siehe Anlage 5

A) Slow flight

B) Inverted flight

C) Stall

D) Best gliding angle

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8. Q95 Point number 1 in the figure indicates which flight state? See figure (PFA-008)Siehe Anlage 5

A) Slow flight

B) Inverted flight

C) Best gliding angle

D) Stall

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9. Q57 What is the principle of a Fowler flap?

A) A flap from the rear bottom side of the wing is folded down

B) At high angles of attack a part of the leading edge lifts

C) The rear part of the wing is folded down

D) A profile-like flap is extended from the trailing edge of the wing

10 / 20

10. Q17 Wing tip vortex development begins during which phase of flight?

A) While setting take-off power during take-off run

B) When lift is being generated during rotation

C) As soon as the aircraft starts moving

D) While setting flaps to lower position

11 / 20

11. Q100 The pressure compensation between wind upper and lower surface results in …

A) laminar airflow by wing tip vortices.

B) profile drag by wing tip vortices.

C) lift by wing tip vortices.

D) induced drag by wing tip vortices.

12 / 20

12. Q56 Which factor can be changed by deploying flaps for landing?

A) The trim condition

B) The effectiveness of the ailerons

C) The twist effect of the engine

D) The position of the center of gravity

13 / 20

13. Q54 When extending the flaps for landing at constant angle of attack, in which way does the lift coefficient change far before reaching the maximum lift coefficient?

A) It increases

B) It remains constant

C) It decreases

D) It is not possible to define

14 / 20

14. Q2 Stabilization around the lateral axis during cruise is achieved by the…

A) vertical rudder.

B) horizontal stabilizer.

C) wing flaps.

D) airlerons.

15 / 20

15. Q35 Where is interference drag generated?

A) At the the gear

B) At the wing root

C) At the ailerons

D) Near the wing tips

16 / 20

16. Q15 Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 3? See figure (PFA-009)Siehe Anlage 2

A) Separation point

B) Transition point

C) Center of pressure

D) Stagnation point

17 / 20

17. Q18 Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 1? See figure (PFA-009)Siehe Anlage 2

A) Transition point

B) Center of pressure

C) Separation point

D) Stagnation point

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18. Q12 Number 3 in the drawing corresponds to the… See figure (PFA-010)Siehe Anlage 1

A) chord line.

B) chord.

C) thickness.

D) camber line.

19 / 20

19. Q76 The elevator moves an aeroplane around the…

A) lateral axis.

B) elevator axis.

C) vertical axis.

D) longitudinal axis.

20 / 20

20. Q83 The right aileron deflects upwards, the left downwards. How does the aircraft react?

A) Rolling to the left, no yawing

B) Rolling to the right, yawing to the left

C) Rolling to the right, yawing to the right

D) Rolling to the left, yawing to the right

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

General

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General

1 / 20

1. Q76 QFE is the…

A) barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.

B) altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.

C) magnetic bearing to a station.

D) barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere (ISA).

2 / 20

2. Q99 The indication of a magnetic compass deviates from magnetic north direction due to what errors?

A) Variation, turning and acceleration errors

B) Inclination and declination of the earth’s magnetic field

C) Gravity and magnetism

D) Deviation, turning and acceleration errors

3 / 20

3. Q35 The trim is used to…

A) adapt the control force.

B) move the centre of gravity.

C) lock control elements.

D) increase adverse yaw.

4 / 20

4. Q68 With increasing altitude and unchanged mixture setting, the air/fuel mixture…

A) stays constant.

B) becomes liquid.

C) becomes richer.

D) becomes more lean.

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5. Q48 Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment? See figure (AGK-007)Siehe Anlage 5

A) Third stroke – power

B) First stroke – induction

C) Second stroke – compression

D) Fourth stroke – exhaust

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6. Q33 When trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?

A) Depends on CG position

B) In direction of rudder deflection

C) It moves up

D) It moves down

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7. Q50 What is likely to be the cause if the engine runs unusually rough while checking the magnetos?

A) Sparking plug is defective

B) Starter is faulty

C) Ignition switch is faulty

D) Short circuit on the ground cable

8 / 20

8. Q5 A construction made of frames and stringer with a supporting skin is called…

A) Wood- or mixed construction.

B) Semi-monocoque construction.

C) Grid construction.

D) Honeycomb structure.

9 / 20

9. Q118 What difference in altitude is shown by an altimeter, if the reference pressure scale setting is changed from 1000 hPa to 1010 hPa?

A) 80 m more than before

B) 80 m less than before

C) Values depending on QNH

D) Zero

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10. Q96 What is the meaning of the white arc on the airspeed indicator?

A) Speed range in smooth air

B) Speed range for extended flaps

C) Speed range not to exceed

D) Speed range in bumpy air

11 / 20

11. Q57 In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be expected?

A) During take-off

B) During cruise

C) During climb

D) During taxi

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12. Q98 The compass error caused by the aircraft’s magnetic field is called…

A) variation.

B) deviation.

C) inclination.

D) declination.

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13. Q61 What happens during oil filter clocking?

A) A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will be filtered by an alternate filter

B) The oil circulation will end after 15 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed

C) A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will not be filtered

D) The oil circulation will end after 30 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed

14 / 20

14. Q90 At higher altitudes, true airspeed (TAS) tends to be higher than calibrated airspeed (CAS). A rough estimate of the TAS can be obtained by…

A) subtracting 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.

B) adding 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.

C) adding 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.

D) subtracting 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 m altitude.

15 / 20

15. Q117 A horizontal situation indicator (HSI) combines the information provided by…

A) the attitude indicator and the flight director.

B) the rate gyro and the slip indicator.

C) the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver.

D) the directional gyro and the flight director.

16 / 20

16. Q7 What are the major components of an aircraft’s tail?

A) Ailerons and elevator

B) Steering wheel and pedals

C) Rudder and ailerons

D) Horizontal tail and vertical tail

17 / 20

17. Q52 Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?

A) Near the cap of the tank

B) It floats on the fuel

C) At the lowest position

D) It is mixed with the fuel

18 / 20

18. Q64 How do you call fuel mixtures with a high amount of fuel?

A) Empty

B) Lean

C) Full

D) Rich

19 / 20

19. Q71 Which gauges involve a measurement of temperature?

A) Engine lubricant, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air, directional gyro

B) Engine oil, cylinder head, exhaust gas, altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator

C) Engine lubricant, engine cooling fluid, cylinder head, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air

D) Engine lubricant, cylinder head, exhaust gas, suction, outside air, cabin air

20 / 20

20. Q120 The altimeter’s reference scale is set to airfield pressure (QFE). What indication is shown during the flight?

A) Height above airfield

B) Airfield elevation

C) Pressure altitude

D) Altitude above MSL

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Navigation

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Navigation

1 / 20

1. Q43 Which are the properties of a Mercator chart?

A) The scale is constant, great circles are depicted as straight lines, rhumb lines are depicted as curved lines

B) The scale is constant, great circles are depicted as curved lines, rhumb lines are depicted as straight lines

C) The scales increases with latitude, great circles are depicted as curved lines, rhumb lines are depicted as straight lines

D) The scales increases with latitude, great circles are depicted as straight lines, rhumb lines are depicted as curved lines

2 / 20

2. Q127 Using primary ground radar, the direction of the aeroplane in relation to the antenna is determined by…

A) the orientation of the antenna.

B) the pulse pair interval.

C) time measurement.

D) the frequency shift of the received pulse.

3 / 20

3. Q45 Which are the properties of a Lambert conformal chart?

A) Great circles are depicted as straight lines and the chart is an equal-area projection

B) The chart is conformal and nearly true to scale

C) Rhumb lines are depicted as straight lines and the chart is conformal

D) The chart is conformal and an equal-area projection

4 / 20

4. Q118 VOR radials are defined based on the principle of…

A) frequency comparison of two signals.

B) amplitude comparison of two signals.

C) pulse comparison of two signals.

D) phase comparison of two signals.

5 / 20

5. Q132 The transponder code in case of a radio communication failure is…

A) 7500

B) 7000

C) 7600

D) 7700

6 / 20

6. Q20 With Central European Time (CET) given as UTC+1, what UTC time corresponds to 1700 CET?

A) 1500 UTC.

B) 1800 UTC.

C) 1600 UTC.

D) 1700 UTC.

7 / 20

7. Q3 Which approximate, geometrical form describes the shape of the Earth best for navigation systems?

A) Sphere of ecliptical shape

B) Perfect sphere

C) Flat plate

D) Ellipsoid

8 / 20

8. Q59 What is the required flight time for a distance of 236 NM with a ground speed of 134 kt?

A) 0:34 h

B) 1:34 h

C) 0:46 h

D) 1:46 h

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9. Q124 The distance measuring equipment (DME) determines the distance based on the principle of…

A) phase comparison.

B) time measurement.

C) laser measurement.

D) Doppler.

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10. Q102 The term QDR means…

A) magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft.

B) true bearing from the aircraft to the station.

C) true bearing from the station to the aircraft.

D) magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station.

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11. Q60 An aircraft is flying with a true airspeed (TAS) of 120 kt and experiences 35 kt tailwind. How much time is needed for a distance of 185 NM?

A) 2 h 11 min

B) 0 h 50 min

C) 1 h 32 min

D) 1 h 12 min

12 / 20

12. Q40 Which of the items on the attached checklist are related to the direct reading compass? See annex (NAV-004)Siehe Anlage 2

A) "Turning Instruments" only

B) "Turning Instruments" and "Circuit Breaker"

C) "Gyro" and "Circuit Breaker"

D) "Gyro" and "Turning Instruments"

13 / 20

13. Q89 Quasi-optical waves travel…

A) along the surface of the earth.

B) through the air and are influenced (e.g. reflected) by the ionosphere.

C) through the air directly from the transmitter to the receiver.

D) along the surface of the earth, but are absorbed by the sea.

14 / 20

14. Q91 Which equipment is needed on board of an aircraft to use a VHF direction finder (VDF)?

A) At least two VHF aerials

B) A relative bearing indicator (RBI)

C) A VDF receiver

D) A VHF radio

15 / 20

15. Q85 What radio navigation aid can be received with the attached aerial? See figure (NAV-017)Siehe Anlage 5

A) DME

B) VOR

C) NDB

D) VDF

16 / 20

16. Q125 The DME reading is a…

A) air range.

B) ground distance.

C) radial distance.

D) slant range.

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17. Q53 An aircraft is flying with an indicated airspeed (IAS) of 150 kt at 8000 ft MSL. According to the rule of thumb, the true airspeed (TAS) equals…

A) 174 kt.

B) 142 kt.

C) 150 kt.

D) 208 kt.

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18. Q111 What is the difference between a locator beacon and a non-directional beacon (NDB)?

A) Locator beacons have a higher range than NDBs

B) Locator beacons transmit on request only

C) Locator beacons have a lower range than NDBs

D) Locator beacons transmit more precisely

19 / 20

19. Q35 The term ‘isogonal’ or ‘isogonic line’ is defined as a line on an aeronautical chart, connecting all points with the same value of…

A) deviation.

B) variation.

C) inclination.

D) heading.

20 / 20

20. Q34 Which direction corresponds to ‘compass north’ (CN)?

A) The direction to which the direct reading compass aligns due to earth’s and aircraft’s magnetic fields

B) The direction from an arbitrary point on Earth to the geographical North Pole

C) The angle between the aircraft heading and magnetic north

D) The most northerly part of the magnetic compass in the aircraft, where the reading takes place

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Planning

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Planning

1 / 20

1. Q92 During a VFR flight the remaining usable fuel at a checkpoint is 80 USG. Reserve fuel is 20 USG, remaining flight time according to flight plan is 2h 20min. What is the highest acceptable fuel flow (FF) for the rest of the trip? (2,00 P.)

A) FF = 8.6 USG/h

B) FF = 42.9 USG/h

C) FF = 25.7 USG/h

D) FF = 34.3 USG/h

2 / 20

2. Q22 The balance arm is the horizontal distance between…

A) the front C.G. limit and the datum line.

B) the C.G. of a mass and the datum line.

C) the front C.G. limit and the rear C.G. limit.

D) the C.G. of a mass and the rear C.G. limit.

3 / 20

3. Q90 Given the following data: Take-Off fuel = 200 lbs Alternate fuel = 40 lbs Final reserve fuel = 30 lbs After 25 minutes the remaining fuel is 120 lbs. Assuming that fuel flow will remain unchanged, the remaining time to the destination should not exceed: (2,00 P.)

A) 59.4 min

B) 20.0 min

C) 15.6 min

D) 37.5 min

4 / 20

4. Q43 The angle of descent is defined as…

A) the angle between a horizontal plane and the actual flight path, expressed in percent [%].

B) the ratio between the change in height and the horizontal distance travelled within the same time, expressed in percent [%].

5 / 20

5. Q101 (For this question, please use annex PFP-063) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a general spot elevation? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 24

A) D

B) C

C) B

D) A

6 / 20

6. Q30 Calculated take-off mass = 1082 kg, calculated CG = 0.254 m, fuel burn = 55 l on station 0.40 m. Where is the CG situated after the landing?

A) 24.6 cm

B) 24.8 cm

C) 25.4 cm

D) 25.2 cm

7 / 20

7. Q47 The speed VS0 is defined as…

A) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration.

B) never-exceed speed.

C) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration.

D) maximum landing gear extended speed.

8 / 20

8. Q16 The center of gravity (CG) defines…

A) the point through which the force of gravity is said to act on a mass.

B) the distance from the datum to the position of a mass.

C) the point on the longitudinal axis or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all masses are referenced.

D) the product of mass and balance arm.

9 / 20

9. Q89 What happens to the true airspeed at a constant indicated airspeed during a climb?

A) It decreases

B) It increases

C) It remains constant below 5000 ft

D) It remains constant above 5000 ft

10 / 20

10. Q37 How does aircraft flap configuration influence the take-off performance?

A) A higher flap setting increases ground roll, lift-off speed, and climb performance

B) A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and lift-off speed and increases climb performance

C) A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and increases lift-off speed and climb performance

D) A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and lift-off speed, but also climb performance

11 / 20

11. Q96 (For this questions use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) For planning a VFR flight, the following data are given: Flight time with planning “overhead-overhead” = 2h 42min Pressure Altitude = 7.500 ft Temperature = ISA Power setting = 2300 RPM Taxi Fuel = 2 USG Additional time for climb = 8 min, Additional time for approach and landing = 10 min The reserve fuel has to be 30% of trip fuel. Determine the minimum block fuel: (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 21

A) 46.4 USG

B) 37.7 USG

C) 51.8 USG

D) 48.4 USG

12 / 20

12. Q15 The term “center of gravity” is defined as…

A) the point at which the total mass of the aeroplane is considered to act.

B) the heaviest point on an aeroplane.

C) another designation for the neutral point.

D) half the distance between the neutral point and the datum line.

13 / 20

13. Q93 (For this questions, use attachment or CAP697 SEP1 Fig. 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Planning a flight from EDWF (Leer Papenburg) to EDWH (Oldenburg Hatten), the following conditions apply: Cruise level = FL 75 Temperature = ISA Cruise weight = 3400 lbs Power setting = 23.0 in. HG @ 2300 RPM Determine True Airspeed (TAS) and Fuel Flow (FF): (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 21

A) TAS = 145 kt FF = 71.1 GPH

B) TAS = 160 kt FF = 12.3 GPH

C) TAS = 145 kt FF = 11.9 GPH

D) TAS = 160 kt FF = 11.9 GPH

14 / 20

14. Q99 (For this question, please use annex PFP-061) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles? (2,00 P.) Siehe Anlage 22

A) A

B) C

C) D

D) B

15 / 20

15. Q17 During an unaccelerated flight…

A) drag equals lift and thrust equals gravity.

B) thrust equals the sum of drag and gravity.

C) thrust equals drag and lift equals gravity.

D) thrust equals lift and drag equals gravity.

16 / 20

16. Q91 Given the following data for a VFR flight: Take-off fuel: 180 kg including reserve fuel, which is 30% of take off fuel. After half of the distance the remaining fuel is 100 kg. Assume that cruise conditions will remain unchanged. Determine the remaining fuel at the destination: (2,00 P.)

A) 10 kg

B) 20 kg

C) 80 kg

D) 40 kg

17 / 20

17. Q41 Unless the aircraft is equipped and certified accordingly…

A) flight into forecast icing conditions is prohibited. Should the aircraft enter an area of icing conditions inadvertantly, the flight may be continued as long as visual meteorological conditions are maintained.

B) flight into known or forecast icing conditions is prohibited. Should the aircraft enter an area of icing conditions inadvertantly, it should be left without delay.

C) flight into areas of precipitation is prohibited.

D) flight into known or forecast icing conditions is only allowed as long as it is ensured that the aircraft can still be operated without performance degradation.

18 / 20

18. Q28 Calculated take-off mass = 2300 lbs, calculated CG = 95.75 in, fuel burn = 170 lbs on station 87.00 in. Where is the CG situated after the landing?

A) 96.45 in

B) 94.11 in

C) 97.39 in

D) 96.57 in

19 / 20

19. Q34 For the purpose of a flight preparation the pilot calculates a total take-off mass of 775 kg and a total moment of 700 mmkg. Which cross marks the center of gravity (CG)? See annex (PFP-005)Siehe Anlage 5

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

20 / 20

20. Q36 How does the aircraft configuration influence take-off performance while all other parameters remaining constant? See figure (PFP-007)Siehe Anlage 7

A) Aircraft B has a higher flap setting than aircraft A

B) Aircraft A has a higher flap setting than aircraft B

C) Aircraft B has a higher tyre pressure than aircraft A

D) Aircraft A has a higher tyre pressure than aircraft B

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Human

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Human

1 / 20

1. Q6 Air consists of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases. What is the approximate percentage of other gases?

A) 0.001

B) 0.21

C) 0.01

D) 0.78

2 / 20

2. Q39 Which answer states a risk factor for diabetes?

A) Smoking

B) Sleep deficiency

C) Overweight

D) Alcohol consumption

3 / 20

3. Q3 What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 6000 ft?

A) 0.12

B) 0.78

C) 0.21

D) 0.189

4 / 20

4. Q31 An acceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of…

A) a descent.

B) an inverted flight.

C) a climb.

D) a bank.

5 / 20

5. Q40 A risk factor for decompression sickness is…

A) sports.

B) smoking.

C) 100 % oxygen after decompression.

D) scuba diving prior to flight.

6 / 20

6. Q58 Which answer is correct concerning stress?

A) Stress and its different symptoms are irrelevant for flight safety

B) Training and experience have no influence on the occurence of stress

C) Everybody reacts to stress in the same manner

D) Stress can occur if there seems to be no solution for a given problem

7 / 20

7. Q53 What is the best combination of traits with respect to the individual attitude and behaviour for a pilot?

A) Introverted – unstable

B) Introverted – stable

C) Extroverted – stable

D) Extroverted – unstable

8 / 20

8. Q12 Which of the human senses is most influenced by hypoxia?

A) The tactile perception (sense of touch)

B) The auditory perception (hearing)

C) The oltfactory perception (smell)

D) The visual perception (vision)

9 / 20

9. Q35 The occurence of a vertigo is most likely when moving the head…

A) during a turn.

B) during a climb.

C) during a straight horizontal flight.

D) during a descent.

10 / 20

10. Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress?

Attention
Concentration
Responsiveness
Memory (1,00 P.)

A) 1

B) 1, 2, 3

C) 1, 2, 3, 4

D) 2, 4

11 / 20

11. Q49 What is the meaning of “risky shift”?

A) Crossing of rudder and ailerons on short final

B) Seat adjustment in flight

C) Spontaneous change of landing direction when the runway has an upslope

D) The tendency to accept higher risks in groups

12 / 20

12. Q20 Anemic hypoxia can be caused by…

A) alcohol.

B) carbon monoxide poisoning.

C) high altitudes.

D) low pressure.

13 / 20

13. Q19 Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for hypoxia?

A) Menstruation

B) Smoking

C) Diving

D) Blood donation

14 / 20

14. Q45 The ongoing process to monitor the current flight situation is called…

A) anticipatory check procedure.

B) constant flight check.

C) situational awareness.

D) situational thinking.

15 / 20

15. Q44 What does the term “confirmation bias” mean?

A) The critical check of ambiguous situations in flight

B) The bias to confirm each radio call

C) The feedback loop in a closed communication

D) The preference to find arguments to proof the own mental model

16 / 20

16. Q37 Visual illusions are mostly caused by…

A) colour blindness.

B) rapid eye movements.

C) misinterpretation of the brain.

D) binocular vision.

17 / 20

17. Q10 Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton?

A) Disturbance of consciousness

B) Spasm

C) Tingling

D) Cyanose

18 / 20

18. Q27 The connection between middle ear and nose and throat region is called…

A) inner ear.

B) eardrum.

C) cochlea.

D) eustachian tube.

19 / 20

19. Q26 Which part of the visual system is responsible for colour vision?

A) Blind spot

B) Rods

C) Macula

D) Cones

20 / 20

20. Q33 Which optical illusion might be caused by a runway with an upslope during the approach?

A) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too low and therefore approaches the runway above the regular glide slope

B) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too slow and speeds up above the normal approach speed

C) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too high and therefore descents below the regular glide slope

D) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too fast and reduces the speed below the normal approach speed

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Procedures

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Procedures

1 / 20

1. Q56 Wet snow on a runway can lead to…

A) reduced rolling resistance during take-off.

B) increased rolling resistance during take-off.

C) an increase in lift.

D) a decrease in lift.

2 / 20

2. Q41 A technical fault requires an emergency off-field landing. Which steps, with respect to the pilot’s operating handbook, are necessary?

A) Inform air traffic control and request technical support, check the pilot’s operating handbook for a reference on the matter and execute an emergency landing.

B) Reduce speed and configure the aircraft for landing in an attempt to gain time, declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure and execute an emergency landing.

C) Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time.

D) Declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure, cover as much distance towards the airport as possible to be closer to the rescue forces.

3 / 20

3. Q51 What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes?

A) The affected brakes need to be cooled down with halon

B) The affected tyres may burst in radial direction or direction of rotation

C) The wheel fairing shall be taken off to increase the cooldown

D) The affected tyres may burst in axial direction

4 / 20

4. Q25 Which phenomenon may be expected at point 2 of the microburst? See figure (OPR-001)Siehe Anlage 1

A) Constant rate of descent

B) Decrease of climb rate

C) Decrease of descent rate

D) Increase of airspeed

5 / 20

5. Q14 What extinguishing agent is the least suitable for an aircraft fire?

A) Water

B) Halon

C) Foam

D) Powder

6 / 20

6. Q59 Which would be the correct reaction when hydroplaning is suspected upon landing?

A) If all wheels are in motion, brake moderately. Maintain directional control by aerodynamic means

B) Add power and use flaps and spoilers to brake aerodynamically

C) Apply maximum braking to reduce aircraft speed to less than hydroplaning speed, then continue normal ground roll

D) Cross rudder and aileron controls in order to use the aircraft fuselage to brake aerodynamically

7 / 20

7. Q11 Which gas is most dangerous during an engine fire?

A) Carbon dioxide

B) Oxygen

C) Nitrogen

D) Carbon monoxide

8 / 20

8. Q34 Wake turbulence is particularly strong…

A) at a high aeroplane weight.

B) when flying with low thrust.

C) when flying with high thrust.

D) at a low aeroplane weight.

9 / 20

9. Q8 Why is it dangerous to pump the throttle for engine start in cold weather?

A) Carburettor icing can occur

B) It may cause a carburettor fire

C) The oil will become diluted

D) The engine might start with not enough power

10 / 20

10. Q48 How does the pilot prepare for a VFR flight over a large distance of water, when it is unlikely that land can be reached in case of an engine failure?

A) File a flight plan including the exact way-points.

B) Be prepared to fly with transponder only.

C) Maintain continuous radio contact with ATC.

D) Carry life vests or a life raft for all occupants.

11 / 20

11. Q31 Wake turbulences develop during take-off just as the aeroplane…

A) lifts off with the main gear.

B) accelerates.

C) lifts off with the front gear.

D) reaches an altitude of 15 ft.

12 / 20

12. Q49 Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing include?

A) Blood type of the other aircraft occupants, location of the first-aid kit

B) How to read an emergency checklist, how to cut the engine, telephone number of the home airport

C) How to work the aircraft radio, emergency transponder squawk, telephone number of the competent search and rescue (SAR) center

D) Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing

13 / 20

13. Q7 Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire?

A) Turbine engines

B) Turboprop engines

C) Piston engines

D) Electric motors

14 / 20

14. Q58 Which danger exists after a heavy rain shower for a landing aircraft?

A) Longer braking distance due to aquaplaning

B) Difficult flare due to glare

C) Displacement of the tire slip marking

D) Decreased braking distance due to aquaplaning

15 / 20

15. Q60 How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be inevitable?

A) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes

B) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes

C) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully

D) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully

16 / 20

16. Q55 What minimum coverage with ice or snow must be given to call a runway “contaminated”?

A) 0.5

B) 0.1

C) 0.25

D) 0.75

17 / 20

17. Q33 Wake turbulence is particularly strong…

A) when flying at low speeds.

B) when flying at low altitudes.

C) when flying at high altitudes.

D) when flying at high speeds.

18 / 20

18. Q17 A wind shear is…

A) a slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft.

B) a wind speed change of more than 15 kt.

C) a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction.

D) a meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps.

19 / 20

19. Q38 With only a slight crosswind, what is the danger at take-off after the departure of a heavy aeroplane?

A) Wake turbulence is amplified and distorted.

B) Wake turbulence twisting transverse to the runway.

C) Wake turbulence on or near the runway.

D) Wake turbulence rotate faster and higher.

20 / 20

20. Q32 Wake turbulence is caused by…

A) turbulence at the downwind side of a mountain range.

B) wind shear at the wingtip of an aerofoil.

C) jet blast behind a turbine engine.

D) pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Communication

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Communication

1 / 20

1. Q33 What is the meaning of the phrase “Roger”?

A) Permission for proposed action is granted

B) I have received all of your last transmission

C) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is…

D) I understand your message and will comply with it

2 / 20

2. Q77 Urgency messages are defined as…

A) messages concerning urgent spare parts which are needed for a continuation of flight and which need to be ordered in advance.

B) messages concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance.

C) information concerning the apron personell and which imply an imminent danger to landing aircraft.

D) messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight.

3 / 20

3. Q35 What is the meaning of the phrase “Approved”?

A) I have received all of your last transmission

B) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is…

C) Permission for proposed action is granted

D) I understand your message and will comply with it

4 / 20

4. Q24 Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

A) Wind 300 degrees, 5 knots

B) QNH 1013

C) Request QDM

D) Turn left

5 / 20

5. Q4 Which abbreviation is used for the term “visual flight rules”?

A) VRU

B) VMC

C) VFS

D) VFR

6 / 20

6. Q84 What is the correct designation of the frequency band from 118.000 to 136.975 MHz used for voice communication?

A) HF

B) MF

C) VHF

D) LF

7 / 20

7. Q50 What does a readability of 1 indicate?

A) The transmission is unreadable

B) The transmission is readable now and then

C) The transmission is perfectly readable

D) The transmission is readable but with difficulty

8 / 20

8. Q79 What is the correct frequency for an initial distress message?

A) Current frequency

B) FIS frequency

C) Emergency frequency

D) Radar frequency

9 / 20

9. Q68 How can you obtain meteorological information concerning airports during a cross country flight?

A) METAR

B) GAMET

C) AIRMET

D) VOLMET

10 / 20

10. Q28 A heading of 285 degrees is correctly transmitted as…

A) two eight five.

B) two hundred eighty-five.

C) two eight five hundred.

D) two hundred eight five.

11 / 20

11. Q64 In what case is visibility transmitted in meters?

A) Up to 10 km

B) Up to 5 km

C) Greater than 10 km

D) Greater than 5 km

12 / 20

12. Q69 Which transponder code indicates a radio failure?

A) 7700

B) 7000

C) 7600

D) 7500

13 / 20

13. Q5 Which abbreviation is used for the term “obstacle”?

A) OST

B) OBTC

C) OBST

D) OBS

14 / 20

14. Q72 How often shall a blind transmission be made?

A) Four times

B) Three times

C) Two times

D) One time

15 / 20

15. Q13 What does the abbreviation “QDR” stand for?

A) True bearing to the station

B) Magnetic bearing from the station

C) True bearing from the station

D) Magnetic bearing to the station

16 / 20

16. Q74 What is the correct course of action when experiencing a radio failure in class D airspace?

A) The flight has to be continued above 5000 feet complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to be left by the shortest route

B) The flight has to be continued above 5000 feet complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to be left using a standard routing

C) The flight has to be continued according to the last clearance complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to be left using a standard routing

D) The flight has to be continued according to the last clearance complying with VFR rules or the airspace has to be left by the shortest route

17 / 20

17. Q56 What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction “DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right heading 220 degrees, wind 090 degrees, 5 knots, runway 12, cleared for take-off”?

A) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, runway 12, cleared for take-off

B) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, wilco, heading 220 degrees, 090 degrees, 5 knots, cleared for take-off

C) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots

D) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots, cleared for take-off

18 / 20

18. Q57 What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction “Next report PAH”?

A) Report PAH

B) Positive

C) Wilco

D) Roger

19 / 20

19. Q80 What kind of information should be included in an urgency message?

A) Intended routing, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, departure aerodrome, destination aerodrome, heading and altitude

B) Intended routing, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, information about position, departure aerodrome, heading and altitude

C) Nature of problem or observation, important information for support, departure aerodrome, information about position, heading and altitude

D) Nature of problem or observation, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, information about position, heading and altitude

20 / 20

20. Q14 What does the abbreviation “QUJ” stand for?

A) True bearing from the station

B) True bearing to the station

C) Magnetic bearing to the station

D) Magnetic bearing from the station

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Law

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Law

1 / 20

1. Q87 Which is the colour of runway edge lights?

A) Green

B) Red

C) White

D) Blue

2 / 20

2. Q20 What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight?

A) A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m

B) Visual reference to the terrain

C) Speed not above 115 kt IAS

D) At least 500 m ground visibilty

3 / 20

3. Q92 What is the meaning of the illustrated ground signal as shown in the signal area of an aerodrome? See figure (ALW-012)

A) After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right

B) Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces

C) Prohibition on landing for a longer period

D) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

4 / 20

4. Q42 Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?

A) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area

B) You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

C) You may continue your flight

D) Follow me, i will bring you to the next suitable airfield

5 / 20

5. Q72 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft in flight?

A) Cleared to land

B) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

C) Return for landing, followed by steady green at the appropriate time

D) Airport unsafe, do not land

6 / 20

6. Q49 Which transponder code should be set during a radio failure without any request?

A) 7600

B) 7700

C) 7000

D) 7500

7 / 20

7. Q10 What is the period of validity of a private pilot license (PPL)?

A) 24 months

B) Unlimited

C) 48 months

D) 60 months

8 / 20

8. Q80 What is the meaning of a steady red light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

A) Stop

B) Land at this airport and proceed to apron

C) Return to starting point

D) Clear the taxiway / runway

9 / 20

9. Q54 Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?

A) AIS (aeronautical information service) SAR (search and rescue)

B) FIS (flight information service) ALR (alerting service)

C) ATC (air traffic control) FIS (flight information service)

D) ATC (air traffic control) AIS (aeronautical information service)

10 / 20

10. Q53 Which answer is correct with regard to separation in airspace “E”?

A) VFR traffic is not separated from any other traffic

B) VFR traffic is separated only from IFR traffic

C) IFR traffic is separated only from VFR traffic

D) VFR traffic is separated from VFR and IFR traffic

11 / 20

11. Q66 Which statement is correct with regard to the term “taxi holding point”?

A) A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be crossed when a taxi clearance is given

B) A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed is given

C) A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions are prevailing

D) A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to proceed is given

12 / 20

12. Q60 Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?

A) GEN COM MET

B) GEN MET RAC

C) GEN AGA COM

D) GEN ENR AD

13 / 20

13. Q77 Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?

A) A straight arrow

B) T

C) L

D) An angled arrow

14 / 20

14. Q91 What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome? See figure (ALW-011) (1,00 P.)

A) After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right

B) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor

C) Glider flying is in progress

D) Landing prohibited for a longer period

15 / 20

15. Q76 What is the meaning of a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground?

A) Return to starting point

B) Land at this airport and proceed to the apron

C) Cleared for take-off

D) Cleared to taxi

16 / 20

16. Q94 Who provides search and rescue service?

A) Only civil organisations

B) International approved organisations

C) Both military and civil organisations

D) Only military organisations

17 / 20

17. Q59 What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP?

A) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces

B) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license samples and validity periods

C) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces

D) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees

18 / 20

18. Q31 Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D and E?

A) 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically

B) 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically

C) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically

D) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically

19 / 20

19. Q89 What is shown on the printed sign? See figure (ALW-019)

A) Point A on a taxiway

B) Taxiway A

C) Parking position A

D) Part A of the runway

20 / 20

20. Q19 What has to be considered when entering an RMZ?

A) To obtain a clearance from the local aviation authority

B) To permanently monitor the radio and if possible to establish radio contact

C) To obtain a clearance to enter this area

D) The transponder has to be switched on Mode C and squawk 7000

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 21, 2021 by PAUL KING.

Meteorology Quiz

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Meteorology

1 / 20

1. What wind conditions can be expected in areas showing large distances between isobars?

A) Formation of local wind systems with strong prevailing westerly winds

B) Strong prevailing westerly winds with rapid veering

C) Variable winds, formation of local wind systems

D) Strong prevailing easterly winds with rapid backing

2 / 20

2. An inversion is a layer …

A) with increasing pressure with increasing height.

B) with increasing temperature with increasing height.

C) with decreasing temperature with increasing height.

D) with constant temperature with increasing height.

3 / 20

3. Moderate to severe turbulence has to be expected…

A) below thick cloud layers on the windward side of a mountain range.

B) overhead unbroken cloud layers.

C) on the lee side of a mountain range when rotor clouds are present.

D) with the appearance of extended low stratus clouds (high fog).

4 / 20

4. What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter?

A) Changing weather with passing of frontal lines

B) Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu

C) Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog

D) Squall lines and thunderstorms

5 / 20

5. What is the ISA standard pressure at FL 180 (5500 m)?

A) 300 hPa

B) 250 hPa

C) 1013.25 hPa

D) 500 hPa

6 / 20

6. What pressure pattern can be observed when a cold front is passing?

A) Shortly decreasing, thereafter increasing pressure

B) Constant pressure pattern

C) Continually increasing pressure

D) Continually decreasing pressure

7 / 20

7. What is referred to as mountain wind?

A) Wind blowing down the mountain side during the night

B) Wind blowing down the mountain side during daytime.

C) Wind blowing uphill from the valley during daytime.

D) Wind blowing uphill from the valley during the night.

8 / 20

8. What factors may indicate a tendency to fog formation?

A) Low pressure, increasing temperature

B) Low spread, decreasing temperature

C) Strong winds, decreasing temperature

D) Low spread, increasing temperature

9 / 20

9. The character of an air mass is given by what properties?

A) Environmental lapse rate at origin

B) Wind speed and tropopause height

C) Region of origin and track during movement

D) Temperatures at origin and present region

10 / 20

10. Which process may result in an inversion layer at about 5000 ft (1500 m) height?

A) Ground cooling by radiation during the night

B) Widespread descending air within a high pressure area

C) Advection of cool air in the upper troposphere

D) Intensive sunlight insolation during a warm summer day

11 / 20

11. How do dew point and relative humidity change with decreasing temperature?

A) Dew point remains constant, relative humidity increases

B) Dew point increases, relative humidity decreases

C) Dew point decreases, relative humidity increases

D) Dew point remains constant, relative humidity decreases

12 / 20

12. What is meant by ‘inversion layer’?

A) A boundary area between two other layers within the atmosphere

B) An atmospheric layer where temperature decreases with increasing height

C) An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height

D) An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height

13 / 20

13. Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected…

A) during cold, clear nights with the formation of radiation fog.

B) during warm summer days with high, flatted Cu clouds.

C) near the rainfall areas of heavy showers or thunderstorms.

D) during approach to an airfield at the coast with a strong sea breeze.

14 / 20

14. An inversion layer close to the ground can be caused by…

A) thickening of clouds in medium layers.

B) large-scale lifting of air.

C) ground cooling during the night.

D) intensifying and gusting winds.

15 / 20

15. What is the usual direction of movement of a polar front low?

A) To the northeast during winter, to the southeast during summer

B) Parallel to the the warm-sector isobars

C) Parallel to the warm front line to the south

D) To the northwest during winter, to the southwest during summer

16 / 20

16. What is the name of the the cold, katabatic wind phenomena blowing from northeast into the Adriatic Sea?

A) Scirocco

B) Bora

C) Mistral

D) Passat

17 / 20

17. What change of wind direction can be expected during the passage of a polar front low in Central Europe?

A) Backing wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front

B) Veering wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front

C) Backing wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front

D) Veering wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front

18 / 20

18. How can wind speed and wind direction be derived from surface weather charts?

A) By alignment and distance of isobaric lines

B) By alignment and distance of hypsometric lines

C) By alignment of lines of warm- and cold fronts.

D) By annotations from the text part of the chart

19 / 20

19. The pressure which is measured at a ground station and reduced to mean sea level (MSL) by means of the actual atmospheric conditions is called…

A) QFF.

B) QFE.

C) QNH.

D) QNE.

20 / 20

20. The symbol labeled (3) as shown in the picture is a / an… See figure (MET-005) Siehe Anlage 4

A) front aloft.

B) cold front.

C) occlusion.

D) warm front.

Your score is

This entry was posted in Uncategorized on August 7, 2021 by PAUL KING.

New image of the Iguana Rose Hammock

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We just added the cutout image of the Iguana Rose hammock
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This entry was posted in Uncategorized and tagged blog on May 6, 2016 by PAUL KING.

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